Dakshana full test for neet

PATTERN : NEET
HST-01(12th Class Syllabus)
TARGET: NEET/AIIMS - 2021
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology
(90) questions. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. ¼ [one fourth (–1)] marks will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response
will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
Filling the Top-half of the ORS :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also
fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.
10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed.
11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not
put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.
13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final.
Name of the Candidate : Roll Number :
Dakshana Foundation
Head Office: Dakshana Valley, Kadus Village, Pune 412 404, Maharashtra, India
Website : www.dakshana.org | E-mail : academics@dakshana.org | Mobile: +91.77987.86405
COURSE : NEET XII
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 720
Dakshana/NEET XIII/HST-01 1/65

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Q1
Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the following options :-
Only One Option Is Correct
(1)1
(0)2
(1)3
(1)4
Q2
Pick out the odd one :-
(1)Maxilla
(1)Mandible
(1)Labrum
(0)Antennae
Q3
Haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma in :-
(1)Cockroach
(1)Human
(0)Earthworm
(1)Rabbit

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Q4
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone ?
(1)Cortisol
(1)Estradiol
(0)Insulin
(1)Progesterone
Q5
Diabetes mellitus is characterized by abnormally ______ glucose level in blood due to ______ called ______.
(1)Low, deficiency of hormone, insulin
(0)High, deficiency of hormone, insulin
(1)Low, deficiency of hormone, glucagon
(1)High, deficiency of enzyme, insulin
Q6
Fill in the blanks :-
(0)a - Pituitary, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal Cortex, d - Gonads, e - Skin
(1)a - Pituitary, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal medulla, d - Gonads, e - Skin
(1)a - Pineal, b - Thyroid, c - Adrenal medulla, d - Gonads, e - Skin

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(1)a - Pituitary, b - Para Thyroid, c - Adrenal Cortex, d - Gonads, e - Skin
Q7
Match the following :-
(1)a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(1)a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(0)a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(1)a - ii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
Q8
Cranial meninges from outside to inside are :-
(1)Arachnoid, duramater, piamater
(1)Piamater, duramater, arachnoid
(0)Duramater, arachnoid, piamater
(1)Duramater, piamater, arachnoid
Q9
Read the following lines and identify the part of brain :-
(a) It is the major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling
(b) It forms 80% of diencephalon
(c) It does not secrete any hormone

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(1)Cerebellum
(1)Hypothalamus
(0)Thalamus
(1)Corpora quadregemina
Q10
Which part of our central nervous system acts as master clock ?
(1)Cerebrum
(1)Cerebellum
(0)Hypothalamus
(1)Pituitary gland
Q11
Which of the following is incorrect difference ?
(1)
Afferent neurons - Conduct impulse towards CNS
Efferent neurons - Conduct impulse away from CNS
(1)
Afferent neurons - Sensory in nature
Efferent neurons - Motor in nature
(0)
Afferent neurons - Results in response by the effectors
Efferent neurons - Provide stimulus and evoke senses
(1)
Afferent neurons - Take information from the receptors
Efferent neurons - Take information to effectors
Q12
Which part of ear determines the pitch of a sound ?

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(0)Cochlea
(1)Tympanic membrane
(1)Ear drum
(1)Oval window
Q13
The region of the vertebrate eye, where the optic nerve passes out of the retina, is called the :-
(1)Fovea
(1)Iris
(0)Blind spot
(1)Optic chiasma
Q14
Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram given above :-
(0)A-Muscle fibre, B-Sarcolemma, C - Blood capillary, D- Fascicle
(1)A - Sarcolemma, B - Muscle fibre, C - Blood capillary, D - Fascicle
(1)A - Muscle fibre, B - Fascicle, C - Blood capillary, D - Sarcomere
(1)A - Sarcomere, B - Fascicle, C - Blood capillary, D - Muscle fibre

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Q15
Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle :-
(0)Myasthenia gravis
(1)Muscular dystrophy
(1)Tetany
(1)Arthritis
Q16
Name the type of joint between the following :-
(a) atlas/axis
(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb
(c) between phalanges
(d) femur/acetabulum
(0)a - Pivot , b - Saddle , c - Hinge, d - Ball and socket
(1)a - Pivot , b - Saddle , c - Gliding, d - Ball and socket
(1)a - Pivot , b - Gliding , c - Saddle, d - Ball and socket
(1)a - Pivot , b - Gliding , c - Hinge, d - Ball and socket
Q17
Match the items of column-I with those of column-II
(1)a - i, b- ii, c - iii, d - iv, e - v
(1)a - iii, b- iv, c - i, d - v, e - ii
(0)a - iii, b- v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii

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(1)a - iii, b- iv, c - v, d - i, e - ii
Q18
The CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the__A__ of smooth muscles of the bladder and simultaneous __B__of the urethral sphincter
causing the release of urine
(0)A - Contraction B - Relaxation
(1)A - Relaxation B - Contraction
(1)A - Relaxation B - Relaxation
(1)A - Contraction B - Contraction
Q19
Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions :-
(i) Not a part of nephron
(ii) Site of maximum reabsorption
(iii) Plays an important role in conservation of water
(1)i - A, ii - B, iii - C
(1)i - J, ii - H, iii - F
(0)i - J, ii - H, iii - D,E
(1)i - J, ii - H, iii - C
Q20

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Number of valves in human heart are :-
(0)4
(1)11
(1)6
(1)7
Q21
Match column-I with column-II :-
(1)a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv, e - v
(0)a - iii, b - v, c - ii, d - i, e - iv
(1)a - iii, b - v, c - i, d - ii, e - iv
(1)a - iii, b - v, c - ii, d - iv, e - i
Q22
SA node is called pacemaker of the heart. Why ?
(0)
Because the SA node can generate maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the
rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.
(1)
Because the SA node can generate maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the
rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

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(1)Because SA node is present in the right atrium of the heart
(1)Because SA node is under the control of autonomous nervous system
Q23
Which of the following statement is incorrect about jaundice ?
(1)Liver is affected
(1)Skin and eyes turn yellow
(1)In this disease there is deposition of bile pigments
(0)A feeling of nausea precedes jaundice
Q24
Which of the following is not the process of digestion in duodenum ?
(1)Polysaccharides (starch) Disaccharides
(1)Fats Diglycerides + Fatty acids
(0)Maltose Glucose + Glucose
(1)Nucleic acids Nucleotides
Q25
Which of the following is the function of bile juice ?
(1)Emulsification of fats
(1)Digestion of fats
(1)Absorption of fats
(0)All of the above

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Q26
How does pepsinogen is converted to its active form ?
(1)In the presence of intrinsic factor
(0)In the presence of concentrated HCl
(1)In the presence of concentrated H SO
2 4
(1)In the presence of vitamin B12
Q27
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
(1)Breathing rate decreases
(0)Breathing rate increases
(1)No change in the breathing rate
(1)Man will die due to anoxia
Q28
_______ is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(0)Asthma
(1)Bronchitis
(1)Emphysema
(1)Fibrosis
Q29
Forelimbs are modified into wings in :-

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(1)Bat, Pigeon
(1)Flying fish, Bat
(0)Pigeon, Peacock
(1)Peacock, Bat
Q30
Match the following :-
(0)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vii, g - iii, h - vi
(1)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vii, g - vi, h - iii
(1)a - viii, b - v, c - iv, d - i, e - ii, f - vi, g - vii, h - iii
(1)a - viii, b - iv, c - v, d - i, e - ii, f - vi, g - vii, h - iii
Q31
Which of the following is are the exclusive feature of mammal ? (not found in any other animal group)
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Seven cervical vertebrae
(c) Mammary glands
(d) Gives birth to young ones
(e) Non-nucleated RBC
(f) Pinna
(g) Corpus callosum in brain
(1)a, b, c, d, e, f, g

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(0)a, c, e, f, g
(1)a, b, d, e, f
(1)a, b, d, e, f, g
Q32
Which of the following is not the feature of the animal given below ?
(1)Triploblastic, coelomate animal
(1)Compound eyes are present
(0)Respiratory organs are book lungs
(1)Excretory organs are malpighian tubules
Q33
Notochord is a ______ derived rod like structure formed on the ______ side during embryonic development in some animals.
(0)Mesodermally, dorsal
(1)Mesodermally, ventral
(1)Endodermally, dorsal
(1)Ectodermally, dorsal
Q34

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Given diagram above is a type of symmetry, found in :-
(1)Aschelminthes and adult echinoderms
(1)Platyhelminthes and adult echinoderms
(0)Annelida and arthropoda
(1)Annelida and coelentrata
Q35
Which of the following organisms have tissue level of organisation?
(1)Porifera and coelentrata
(1)Porifera and ctenophore
(0)Coelentrata and ctenophora
(1)Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
Q36
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1)The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression
(0)All the cartilages in vertebrate embryo are replaced by bones in adults
(1)Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear joints, between adjacent bones of vertebral column, limbs and hands of adults
(1)Cells of cartilage are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them

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Q37
Given below is an example of connective tissue. Identify the examples of this diagram :-
(0)Tendons and ligaments
(1)Tendons and piamater
(1)Ligaments and piamater
(1)Tendons and duramater
Q38
The cells of epithelial tissues are ______packed with ______ intercellular matrix.
(1)Loosely, little
(1)Loosely, large
(0)Compactly, little
(1)Tightly, large
Q39
The structures of the cells vary according to their function. Therefore, the tissues are different and are broadly classified into four types :-
(1)Epithelial, connective, muscular, areolar
(1)Epithelial, connective, muscular, adipose
(0)Epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous
(1)Epithelial, connective, nervous, areolar

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Q40
Find out the correct match from the following table?
(1)(i), (ii)
(0)Only (iii)
(1)(i), (ii), (iii)
(1)Only (ii)
Q41
Identify the given diagrame and select the correct option in respect of given diagrame?
(1)Hypostomatic leaf
(0)Amphistomatic leaf
(1)Found in lilium plant
(1)Both 2 and 3
Q42
Find out the correct examples for given floral diagrams :-

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(0)Sunhemp, Mustard, Petunia
(1)Belladonna, Tulip, Pea
(1)Pea, Mustard, Tulip
(1)Pea, Mustard, Tulip
Q43
Choose the correct floral formula for onion
(1)
(1)
(1)r
(0)r
Q44
How many of the given plants have papilionaceous corolla.
Sunhemp, Trifolium, Chilli, Petunia, Lupin, Aloe, Muliathi, Tulip
(1)7
(1)6
(1)5
(0)4

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Q45
Which is not a true statement?
(1)Lateral meristems are cylindrical meristems
(1)
Both apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems because they appear early in the life of a plant and contribute to the
formation of the primary plant body.
(0)Mature cells constitute the meristematic tissue
(1)The meristem that appears later than primary meristem is called the secondary meristem.
Q46
During the elongation of stem and formation of new leaves some cells of shoot apical meristem left behind which constitute the axillary
bud. Identify the region of axillary bud in the given diagram
(1)A
(1)B
(0)C
(1)D
Q47
Flowers of pea, gram & bean are :-
(1)Actinomorphic and epigynous

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(1)Actinomorphic and epigynous
(0)Zygomorphic and hypogynous
(1)Zygomorphic and epigynous
Q48
Which part of the Australian acacia plant becomes green expanded & synthesises food?
(1)Leaf lamina
(1)Leaf base
(0)Leaf petiole
(1)All of the above
Q49
Sexual reproduction - oogamous type and accompanied by complex post fertilization development in?
(1)Chlorophyceae
(1)Phaeophyceae
(1)Cyanophyceae
(0)Rhodophyceae
Q50
Which of the following includes all the others?
(1)Order
(0)Class
(1)Family
(1)Species

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Q51
Which taxon is not related to wheat?
(0)Sapindales
(1)Monocotyledonae
(1)Poaceae
(1)Triticum
Q52
What is not found in members of deuteromycetes?
(1)Conidia formation
(1)Branched and septated mycelium
(0)Sexual reproduction
(1)Decomposer nature
Q53
Which process is common in between bacteria and fungi?
(1)Nitrogen fixation ability
(0)Production of antibiotics
(1)Production of carbohydrate
(1)Type of cellular organization
Q54
R-plasmid has gene for the resistance from?

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(1)Certain microbes
(0)Certain drugs
(1)Fertilization
(1)Environmental condition
Q55
Male gametes are flagellated in?
(1)Nostoc
(1)Polysiphonia
(1)Spirogyra
(0)Fucus
Q56
Eubacteria differ from mycoplasma in?
(1)In having cell membrane
(1)In having ribosome
(0)In having cell wall
(1)In having ds DNA
Q57
Choose the incorrect pair regarding body differentiation
(1)Brown algae – Fronds, stipe and holdfast
(1)Insect – Head, thorax and abdomen
(0)Bryophyta – Root, stem like and leaf like
(1)Mollusca – Head, muscular foot and visceral hump

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Q58
Protonema, gamete, bud, spore, spore mother cells, gametophyte, zygote, embryo, sporophyll, prothallus. How many of above structure
are haploid in bryophytes?
(1)7
(1)6
(0)5
(1)4
Q59
Which option is related to Volvox and Fucus?
(1)Both have same ploidy level in main plant body
(0)Both have oogamy
(1)Both have chlorophyll 'a' and 'b'
(1)Both have motile colony and unequal laterally flagella
Q60
Choose the incorrect statement regarding virus :-
(1)They cause diseases like mumps, small pox, herpes and influenza
(1)They are obligate parasites
(1)
They are inert outside their specific host cell
(0)Viral infection completely cure by antibiotics
Q61

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Which one of the following is a parasite on mustard?
(0)Albugo
(1)Rhizopus
(1)Puccinia
(1)Agaricus
Q62
Which option is not related to Euglenoids?
(1)Majority of them are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
(1)The pigments are identical to those present in higher plants
(1)When deprived of sunlight they behave like heterotrophs
(0)Most of them have two flagella; one lies longitudinally and the other transversely
Q63
Which of the following statement is correct for the given structure?
(1)Main respiratory substance.
(1)It rotates plane-polarized light in the right direction.
(0)More abundant in honey and sweet fruits so also known as fruit sugar.
(1)Main component of plant cell wall.

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Q64
Which of the following is not correct for the isoelectric point of an amino acid?
(1)At isoelectric point, amino acid is present in zwitter ion form.
(1)At isoelectric point amino acid do not move in electric field.
(1)At isoelectric point net charge of amino acid becomes zero.
(0)At isoelectric point lysine amino acid move towards anode in electric field.
Q65
__A__ and __B__ are sulphur containing amino acid. Fill up the blanks :-
(1)A- Cysteine , B- Proline
(0)A- Cysteine , B- Methionine
(1)A- Glycine , B- Methionine
(1)A- Serine , B- Alanine
Q66
Amino acids are amphoteric compound because they contains
(1)Two acidic groups
(1)One hydrophilic and one hydrophobic end
(0)One acidic – COOH and one alkaline group –NH2
(1)Two alkaline groups
Q67
Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).
In oligosaccharides, monosaccharides are linked together by __A__. One molecule of __B__ is eliminated during the bond formation. Here
(A) and (B) are?

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(1)A → glycosidic bond; B → H S
2
(1)A → Phosphoester bond; B → H O
2
(0)A → Glycosidic bond; B → H O
2
(1)A → Peptide bond; B → H S
2
Q68
In many plants vegetative shoot apex is modified into reproductive shoot apex in response to :-
(1)Oxygen present in the air
(1)Food materials available in the soil
(1)Minerals availability in soil
(0)Length of the day and night time
Q69
Choose the incorrect option for the given figure.
(1)Both of the progeny cells following mitotic cell division retains the ability to divide.
(1)We get a typical sigmoid curve for this type of growth under natural condition
(1)This type of rate of growth is also called efficiency index.
(0)Only one daughter cell continous to divide while the other differentiates and matures.

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Q70
Choose the correct statements for plant growth regulators
(1)They are organic compounds and are capable of influencing physiological activities leading to promotion of growth only.
(1)Mostly they are intracellular chemicals factors
(0)These growth regulatory substances are also responsible for inhibition and modification of plant growth.
(1)All growth promotors are indole compounds.
Q71
The microbe rhizobium is not found in the nitrogen-fixing nodules on the roots of which group of plants
(1)Alfalfa and lentils
(1)Broad bean and clover bean
(0)Alfalfa and alnus
(1)Sweet clover and clover bean
Q72
Mineral ions are frequently remobilized, particularly from older senescing parts. Elements most readily mobilized are?
(1)P, S, Ca, N
(1)P, S, K, Ca
(0)P, S, N, K
(1)Ca, S, N, K
Q73
During day time, if a green plant transferred to a CO free environment and in this environment water available to plant is less and
transpiration rate is high than choose the correct option for this plant
2

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(1)Stomata remains open and plant photosynthesis is high.
(0)Plant undergo water stress and stomata closed
(1)Stomata remains open and plant undergo CO stress
2
(1)Stomata closed and water absorption increased.
Q74
The major proportion of water flow in the root cortex occurs via?
(1)Symplast
(1)Transmembrane pathway
(1)Facilitated diffusion
(0)Apoplast
Q75
If a plant cell is placed into a hypotonic solution, then what will happen?
(1)Endosmosis and the difference between the inside of cell and the outside of is increased.
(1)Exosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and the outside of is increased.
(1)Exosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and outside of is reduced
(0)Endosmosis and the difference between the inside cell and outside of is reduced.
Q76
Enzymes are also termed as biocatalyst because?
(1)Enzymes are work at specific pH.

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(1)Km constant of enzyme is always low.
(1)They help to achieve the transition state of substrate during chemical reaction
(0)The enzymes enhance the rate of biochemical reaction
Q77
Which one is not required for the continuity of the Krebs cycle?
(1)Succinyle Co-A is oxidised to OAA
(1)Regeneration of NAD and FAD
+ +
(1)Supply of oxygen in mitochondria of the cell
(0)Activity of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme
Q78
During respiration in cell, first step of breakdown of glucose is common in all organisms because :-
(1)Cells of the all organisms have mitochondria.
(1)Oxygen is compulsory for respiration.
(1)Glucose is finally converted into CO and H O.
2 2
(0)All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose without the help of oxygen.
Q79
Choose the correct match in given table for C and C plant :-
3 4
(1)
In which cells calvin cycle run
C -plant -Mesophyll C -plant - Mesophyll
3 4

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(1)
Photorespiration at high light intensities
C -plant -High C -plant - High
3 4
(0)
Number of carbons in primary CO acceptor in calvin cycle
C -plant -5C C -plant - 5C
2
3 4
(1)
RuBiSCO is found in
C -plant -Mesophyll C -plant - Mesophyll
3 4
Q80
During chemiosmosis proton gradient is important because :-
(1)The gradient is broken down due to the movement of electrons in the thylakoid membrane.
(1)Protons in the stroma increase in numbers.
(0)Breakdown of this gradient leads to release energy.
(1)ATPase has a channel that allows diffusion of protons from stroma to lumen.
Q81
In the given figure of the light harvesting complex choose the correct option for A :-
(1)Same redox behaviour in both pigment systems.
(1)Same absorption peak in both pigment systems.
(1)Make the photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different wavelengths of light.
(0)During Z-scheme of light reaction, A of both pigment systems interact with each other

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Q82
Match the stages of meiosis in column-I to their characters in the column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below
(1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(0)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(1)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Q83
Interkinesis is a period between
(1)Prophase-I and metaphase-I
(1)Anaphase-I and prophase-II
(0)Telophase-I and prophase-II
(1)Anaphase-II and telophase-II
Q84
If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and asked to count the number and define the shape of the chromosomes, which
of the following stages can you most conveniently look at respectively?
(1)Prophase, metaphase
(1)Metaphase, telophase
(1)Metaphase, prophase
(0)Metaphase, anaphase

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Q85
If a cell have chromosome number 2n = 40 then choose the correct option for metaphase and anaphase of mitosis :-
(1)
Metaphase → 40 chromosome
Anaphase → 40 chromatids
(0)
Metaphase → 80 chromatids
(1)
Metaphase → 80 chromosome
(1)
Metaphase → 40 chromtids
Q86
Choose the correct statement for chromosomes :-
(0)Chromosome number is constant for individuals of a species.
(1)The number of autosomes in human is 46.
(1)The size of chromosome is measured during prophase.
(1)A chromosome with a very short arm and a very long arm is termed as submetacentric.
Q87
Ribosomes are made up of :-
(1)RNA only
(1)RNA, DNA and lipids
(0)Nucleic acid, proteins and Mg++
(1)DNA, proteins and Mg++

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Q88
Which one double membrane-bound cell organelle can be found in non-green, living plant cells only?
(1)Nucleus
(1)Mitochondria
(1)Chloroplast
(0)Aleuroplast
Q89
Which one option is not true about cell walls?
(1)Plant cell wall is a non living structure
(1)Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose
(1)Plasmodesma exchange the materials between protoplasm of the neighbouring cells.
(0)Cell wall is selectively permeable boundary
Q90
The cell organelle found in all type of cells which contain nucleic acid is:-
(1)Nucleus
(0)Ribosome
(1)Mitochondria
(1)Nucleolus
Q91
The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H at 50 K and that of O at 800 K is :-
2 2

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(1)4
(1)2
(0)1
(1)1/4
Q92
Which of the following statements is false ?
(0)The product of pressure and volume of fixed amount of a gas is independent of temperature
(1)Molecules of different gases have the same kinetic energy at a given temperature
(1)The gas equation is not valid at high pressure and low temperature
(1)The gas constant per molecule is known as Boltzmann's constant
Q93
When a manganous salt is fused with a mixture of KNO and solid NaOH, the oxidation number of Mn changes from +2 to :-
3
(1)+4
(1)+3
(0)+6
(1)+7
Q94
Which of the following sequence of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation state of nitrogen ?
(1)HNO , NO, NH Cl, N
3 4 2
(0)HNO , NO, N , NH Cl
3 2 4

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(1)HNO , NH Cl, NO, N
3 4 2
(1)NO, HNO , NH Cl, N
3 4 2
Q95
In the reaction,
2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2Al (aq) + 6Cl (aq) + 3H (g)
3+ –
2
(1)6L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3L H (g) produced
2
(1)33.6 L H (g) is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole Al that reacts
2
(1)67.2 L H (g) at 1 atm and 273 K is produced for every mole Al that reacts
2
(0)11.2 L H (g) at 1 atm at 273 K is produced for every mole HCl(aq) Consumed
2
Q96
Which of the following contains the largest mass of hydrogen atoms ?
(1)5.0 moles C H O
2 2 4
(1)1.1 moles C H O
3 8 3
(1)1.5 moles C H O
6 8 6
(0)4.0 moles C H O
2 4 2
Q97
20 g of an ideal gas contains only atoms of S and O occupies 5.6 L at 1 atm and 273 K. What is the molecular mass of gas ?
(1)64
(0)80
(1)96
(1)60

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Q98
Which of the following relation of equilibrium constants is correct for reactions given :-
(1)log K = log K + log K
3 1 2
(0)log K + log K + log K = 0
1 2 3
(1)log K = log K – log K
3 1 2
(1)log K = 1/2 [log K + log K ]
3 1 2
Q99
Which of the following will show maximum hydrolysis :-
(1)0.1 CH COONa
3
(1)0.01 CH COONa
3
(1)0.001 CH COONa
3
(0)0.0001 CH COONa
3
Q100
In the reaction x(g) + y(g) 2z(g) 2 mole of x, 1 mole of y and 1 mole of z are placed in a 10 Litre vessel and allowed to reach
equilibrium. If final concentration of z is 0.2M then equilibrium constant for the reaction is :-
(1)1.60
(1)80/3
(0)16/3
(1)3.5

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Q101
At 200°C, nitrogen oxide reacts with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide as follows :
2NO + O 2NO , K = 3 × 10
In a mixture of the three species at equilibrium, we can accurately predict that
2 2 C
6
(1)The concentrations of both NO and O will be much larger than the concentration of NO
2 2
(1)The concentrations of both NO and O will be always much smaller than the concentration of NO
2 2
(0)The concentrations of either NO or O and possibly both will be much smaller than the concentration of NO
2 2
(1)The concentration of O will be exactly one half the concentration of NO
2
Q102
In the following reaction
Which are the two Bronsted bases
(1)HC O and PO
2 4
–
4
3–
(1)HPO and C O
4
2–
2 4
2–
(1)HC O and HPO
2
4–
4
2–
(0)PO and C O
4
3–
2 4
2–
Q103
Which Transition in Be would have same wave length as 2 → 4 Transition in He ?
3+ +
(1)2 → 4
(1)1 → 3

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(1)3 → 6
(0)4 → 8
Q104
The Enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of a compound.
(1)is always negative
(1)is always positive
(0)may be +ve or –ve
(1)is never –ve
Q105
The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10 g cm s . The
uncertainty in electron velocity is approx :
(mass of an electron is 9 × 10 g) :-
–18 –1
–28
(1)1 × 10 cm s
5 –1
(1)1 × 10 cm s
11 –1
(0)1 × 10 cm s
9 –1
(1)1 × 10 cm s
6 –1
Q106
When huge amount of sevage is dumped into a river, the BOD will –
(0)Increase
(1)Remain unchanged
(1)Slightly decrease
(1)Decrease

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Q107
The IUPAC name of following compound CH CH NHCHO :-
3 2
(1)N-Formyl ethanamide
(1)Ethylamino methanal
(0)N-Ethyl methanamide
(1)N-Ethyl methanol
Q108
Relation between following compound is :
(1)Metamers
(1)Chain isomers
(0)Functional group isomers
(1)Not isomers
Q109
Arrange following in increasing order of C–N bond length :
(1)Q < P < R < S
(0)P < R < S < Q
(1)R < S < Q < P

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(1)S < R < Q < P
Q110
Arrange the following in correct order of reactivity for ESR :-
(1)(IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
(1)(I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(1)(IV) > (II) > (I) > (III)
(0)(IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
Q111
Which of the following does't show G.I. -
(1)CH – CH = CH – CH
3 3
(0)H(Cl)C = C = C = C = CH(Cl)
(1)
(1)
Q112
Which is most reactive for nucleophilic addition reaction :-

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(1)
(1)
(0)
(1)
Q113
The correct order of stability of given carbonion is :-
(1)III > II > IV > I
(1)II > III > I > IV
(1)II > III > IV > I
(0)III > II > I > IV
Q114
Product (C) is :-

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(0)Butane
(1)Hexane
(1)Octane
(1)Heptane
Q115
In the following compound [P] :-.
x = no. of localised lone pair, then what will be the value of ‘x’.
(0)4
(1)5
(1)6
(1)3
Q116
Rank the following in decreasing order of heat of hydrogenation :-
(1)iii > i > ii > iv
(1)i > iii > ii > iv
(0)iv > ii > iii > i
(1)iv > iii > ii > i

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Q117
Which of following are aromatic in character :-
(1)I, II, III, IV, V
(1)I, II, V
(0)I, II, III, V
(1)I, IV, VI
Q118
In how many compound inductive & resonance both effect operate by the attached group.
(1)5
(1)4
(0)3
(1)2
Q119
Which of the following compound has deficiency mainly at ortho and para positions.

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(1)
(1)
(1)
(0)(1) & (2) both
Q120
Which of the following resonating structure is not valid ?
(1)
(1)
(0)
(1)
Q121
H O < H O order is incorrect for :-
2 2 2
(1)Boiling point

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(1)Acidic nature
(1)Dipole moment
(0)Dipole moment
Q122
Which is not a method to prepare H O :-
2 2
(1)Oxidation of 2-ethyl Anthraquinol
(0)H S O
2 2 7
(1)BaO . 8H O
2 2
(1)K S O
2 2 8
Q123
Metallic hydrides are :-
(1)Also known as interstitial hydrides
(1)Are good conductor of electricity
(1)Have more M.P. than their metals
(0)All are correct
Q124
Correct order of Density in IIA group is :-
(0)Ca < Mg < Be
(1)Be < Mg < Ca
(1)Be < Ca < Mg
(1)Mg < Be < Ca

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Q125
When Na and Li placed in dry air we get :-
(1)NaOH, Na O, Li O
2 2
(1)Na CO , Na O , Li O
2 3 2 2 2
(1)Na O, Li N, NH
2 3 3
(0)Na O, Li O, Li N
2 2 3
Q126
B H + NH → Addition compound (X)
(X) Y + Z (g)
In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively
2 6 3
(1)Borazine, H O
2
(1)Boron, H2
(1)Boron nitride, H2
(0)Borazine and hydrogen
Q127
In Borax bead test characterstic colour appears due to formation of–
(0)Metaborate of transition metals
(1)Sodium Metaborate
(1)Boron oxide
(1)Boric anhydride

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Q128
Which is not monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer.
(1)PhSiCl3
(1)MeSiCl3
(1)Me SiCl
2 2
(0)Me SiCl
3
Q129
Which has zero dipole moment ?
(1)1,1-Dichloroethene
(1)Cis-1,2-dichloroethene
(0)Trans-1,2-dichloroethene
(1)None of these
Q130
Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is NOT observed in :
(1)A, B

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(1)B, D
(0)A, C
(1)All are possible
Q131
Identify the incorrect order :-
(0)HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; Acidic nature
(1)Li (aq) < Be (aq.) ; hydrated radius
+ +2
(1)LiF > NaF > KF > RbF ; Lattice energy
(1)Cl > F > Br > I ; e– affinity
Q132
In PCl , axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds because–
5
(1)Equatorial bonds lie in same plane
(0)Axial bonds have more % p character than equatorial bonds
(1)Irregular electron distribution in atom 'P'
(1)There is bond angle of 90° between equatorial bonds.
Q133
Which of the following combination of orbitals does not form covalent bond (x-axis is internuclear axis) :-
(0)s + py
(1)p + p
y y
(1)d + d
yz yz
(1)d + d
xy xy

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Q134
Among Al O , SiO , P O and SO the correct order of acid strength is :-
2 3 2 2 3 2
(1)SO < P O < SiO < Al O
2 2 3 2 2 3
(0)Al O < SiO < P O < SO
2 3 2 2 3 2
(1)Al O < SiO < SO < P O
2 3 2 2 2 3
(1)SiO < SO < Al O < P O
2 2 2 3 2 3
Q135
2nd I.P. would be :-
(1)Equal to 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P.
(1)Less than 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P.
(0)Greater than 1st I.P. but less than 3rd I.P.
(1)Equal to 1st and 2nd I.P.
Q136
A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and
the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m.
What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan : (Take g = 10 m/s )
2
(0)10.0 cm
(1)any value less than 12.0 cm
(1)4.0 cm
(1)8.0 cm

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Q137
A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If = it is given a small vertical displacement from
equilibrium, it oscillates with a time period T, then :-
(1)
(1)
(0)
(1)
Q138
A particle crossing the origin of the coordinates at time t = 0, moves in the xy plane with a constant acceleration β in the y-direction. If its
equation is y = αx . (α is a constant), its velocity component in the x-direction is :-
2
(1)
(1)
(1)
(0)
Q139
A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a time period of 16s. At time t = 2s, the particle crosses the mean position while at t = 4
s, its velocity
is 4 ms . The amplitude of motion (in metre) is :-
–1

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(1)
(1)
(1)
(0)
Q140
If the length of a stretched string is shortened by 40% and the tension is increased by 44%, then the ratio of the final and initial
fundamental frequencies is :-
(1)3 : 4
(1)4 : 3
(1)1 : 3
(0)2 : 1
Q141
A flat plate moves normally with a speed towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area of cross-section. The jet discharges water at
the rate of volume V per second at a speed of The density of water is ρ. Assume that water splashes along the surface of the plate at
right angles to the original motion. The magnitude of the force acting on the plate due to the jet of water is :-
(1)
(0)
(1)
(1)
Q142
An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s making an angle of 45º with horizontal. The equation for the trajectory is h = Ax – Bx
where h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are constants. The ratio A : B is (g = 10 ms )
2
–2

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(1)1 : 5
(1)5 : 1
(1)1 : 40
(0)40 : 1
Q143
Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are
(1)14 unit
(0)5√3 unit
(1)10√3 unit
(1)20√3 unit
Q144
A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440 Hz is tied to a string of 1.5 m length and rotated with an angular velocity of 20 rad/s in the
horizontal plane. Then the range of frequencies heard by an observer stationed at a large distance from the whistle will be (v = 330 m/s) :-
(1)400.0 Hz to 484.0 Hz
(1)403.3 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(1)400.0 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(0)403.3 Hz to 484.0 Hz
Q145
A body of mass 40 g is moving with a velocity of v . If an impulse J is imparted to the body such that its velocity becomes v , then :
1 2
(1)J = 20v + 20v
1 2
(0)J = 40(v – v )
2 1

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(1)J = 40(v + v )
1 2
(1)J = 20(v – v )
2 1
Q146
A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kg/s with a relative speed of 5 km/s. What is the acceleration of the
rocket 50 seconds after the blast, neglecting gravity ?
(1)10 m s–2
(1)25 m s–2
(0)50 m s–2
(1)100 m s–2
Q147
A machine gun is mounted on a 2000 kg vehicle on a horizontal smooth road (friction negligible). The gun fires 10 bullets per sec with a
velocity of 500 m/s. If the mass of each bullet be 10g, what is the acceleration produced in the vehicle ?
(0)2.5 cm/s2
(1)25 cm/s2
(1)50 cm/s2
(1)25 m/s2
Q148
A balloon has 8 gram of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air escapes at a uniform rate of 7 cm s . If the balloon shrinks in 5.6
seconds then the average force acting on the balloon is
–1
(0)10 N
–4
(1)10 dyne
–2
(1)56 dyne
(1)10 N
–6

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Q149
An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank of capacity 9 m , kept at a height of 10 m above the ground. If the pump takes 5 minutes
to fill the tank by consuming 10 kW power, the efficiency of the pump should be : (Take g = 10 ms )
3
–2
(1)60%
(1)40%
(1)20%
(0)30%
Q150
A 1.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface when a horizontal force in the positive direction of x-axis is applied to
the block. The force is given by : where x is in metre and the initial position of the block is x = 0. The maximum kinetic
energy of the block between x = 0 and x = 2.0 m is :-
(1)2.33 J
(1)8.67 J
(0)5.33 J
(1)6.67 J
Q151
Volume versus temperature graph of two moles of helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio of heat absorbed and the work done by the
gas in process 1-2 is :-
(1)3
(0)5/2
(1)5/3

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(1)7/2
Q152
In a Carnot engine, when T = 0°C and T = 200°C, its efficiency is η and when T = 0°C and T = –200°C, Its efficiency is η , then what
is η /η :-
2 1 1 1 2 2
1 2
(0)0.577
(1)0.733
(1)0.638
(1)Can not be calculated
Q153
A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without motion on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is at one end and if he runs to the other end
of the boat and stops, the displacement of the boat is :-
(1)1.5 m in the direction of displacement of the man
(1)0.75 m in the direction of displacement of the man
(0)1.5 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man
(1)0.75 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of the man
Q154
A circular plate of uniform thickness has a diameter of 56 cm. A circular portion of diameter 42 cm is removed from one edge as shown in
the figure. The centre of mass of the remaining portion from the centre of plate will be :-
(1)5 cm

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(1)7 cm
(0)9 cm
(1)11 cm
Q155
Two identical particles each of mass m are separated by a distance 2R. Find the gravitational field strength at P :
(0)
(1)
(1)
(1)None of these
Q156
A stone of mass 1 kg tied to light inextensible string of length L = 10/3 m is whirling in a circular path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the
ratio of the maximum to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and g = 10 m/s , the speed of the stone at the highest point of the circle is
:
2
(1)20 m/s
(1)10√3 m /s
(1)5√2 m /s
(0)10 m/s

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Q157
A simple pendulum is vibrating with an angular amplitude of 90° as shown in the adjoining figure. For what value of α, is the acceleration
directed ?
(i) vertically upwards
(ii) horizontally
(iii) vertically downwards
(0)
(1)
(1)
(1)
Q158
The orbital angular momentum of a satellite revolving at a distance r from the centre is L. If the distance is increased to 4r. Then the new
angular momentum will be :-
(1)L
(0)2L
(1)L/2
(1)4L
Q159

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Question
A pendulum clock keeps correct time at 20°C. The correction to be made during summer per day where the average temperature is 40°C
will be :
(Take coefficient of linear expansion of the material of pendulum = 10 /°C) :-
–5
(1)5.86 s
(1)7.82 s
(0)8.64 s
(1)9.28 s
Q160
A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed v = 3√2 m in the XOY-plane along the line Y = X + 4. The magnitude of the
angular momentum of the particle about the origin is :
(1)zero
(0)60 unit
(1)7.5 unit
(1)40√2 unit
Q161
A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in a
horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :
(1)Mω L
2
(0)1/2 Mω L
2
(1)2Mω L
2
(1)none of these
Q162
In an experiment the values of two resistances were measured to be R = (5.0 ± 0.2) Ω & R = (10.0 ± 0.1) Ω. Then their combined
resistance in series will be :-
1 2

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(1)(15 ± 0.1) Ω
(1)(15 ± 0.2) Ω
(0)(15 ± 2%) Ω
(1)(15 ± 3%) Ω
Q163
Figure I, II, III and IV depict variation of force with time :
the impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted. Figure :
(1)I and II
(1)III and I
(0)III and IV
(1)IV only
Q164
Figure shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.

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In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the
system in the process AC will be :
(1)500 J
(0)460 J
(1)300 J
(1)380 J
Q165
A force is acting on a particle the work done by this force in displacing the body from (1, 2, 3) m to (3, 6, 1) m
:-
(0)–10 J
(1)100 J
(1)10 J
(1)1 J
Q166
The equation of state for 5g of nitrogen gas at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be :–
(1)PV = 5 RT
(1)PV = (5/2) RT
(1)PV = (5/14) RT

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(0)PV = (5/28)RT
Q167
A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has two indentical beads of negligible size, each of mass m, which can slide freely along the
rod. Initially, the two beads are at the centre of the rod and the system is rotating with angular velocity ω about an axis perpendicular to
rod and passing through the mid-point of rod. There are no external forces. When the beads reach the ends of the rod the angular
velocity of the system is :-
0
(1)
(0)
(1)
(1)ω0
Q168
The compressibility of water is 4 × 10 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100 cc of water under a pressure of 100
atmosphere will be :-
–5
(0)0.4 cc
(1)4 × 10 cc
–5
(1)0.025 cc
(1)0.004 cc
Q169
Two satellites A and B, ratio of masses 3 : 1 are in circular orbits of radii r and 4r. The ratio of total mechanical energy of A to that of B is :-

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(1)1 : 3
(1)3 : 1
(1)3 : 4
(0)12 : 1
Q170
Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown in figure. The unloaded length of the steel
wire is 1.5 m and that of brass is 1.0 m. Young's modulus of steel is 2.0 × 10 Nm and that of brass is 1.0 × 10 Nm . The ratio of
elongations of steel and brass wires
11 –2 11 –2
(0)1.25
(1)1.5
(1)2.0
(1)0.5
Q171
A sphere of mass m and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping with the speed u. Now, if it rolls up vertically, the maximum
height it would attain will be :-
(1)3u / 4g
2
(1)5u / 2g
2
(0)7u / 10g
2
(1)u / 2g
2

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Q172
Four particles each of mass M are located at the vertices of a square with side L. The gravitational potential due to this at the centre of the
square is :-
(0)
(1)
(1)zero
(1)
Q173
With what velocity a ball be projected vertically so that the distance covered by it in 5 second is twice the distance it covers in its 6
second (g = 10 m/s ) :-
th th
2
(1)58.8 m/s
(1)49 m/s
(0)65 m/s
(1)19.6 m/s
Q174
An empty plastic box of mass m is found to accelerate up at the rate of g/6 when placed deep inside water. How much sand should be put
inside the box so that it may accelerate down at the rate of g/6 ?
(1)2m/3
(0)2m/5
(1)3m/4
(1)3m/5

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Q175
Two tuning forks P and Q are vibrated together. The number of beats produced are represented by the straight line OA in the following
graph. After loading Q with wax again these are vibrated together and the beats produced are represented by the line OB. If the frequency
of P is 341Hz, the frequency of Q will be :-
(1)341 Hz
(1)338 Hz
(0)344 Hz
(1)None of the above
Q176
Two pulses of same amplitude are moving in opposite direction along the string according to the figure. The speed of the wave is 2
cm/sec. Initially the pulses are 8 cm apart. What will be the position of pulses after two seconds :
(1)
(1)
(0)

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Question
(1)
Q177
There are three sources of sound of equal intensity with frequencies 400, 401 and 402 vib/sec. The number of beats heard per second is :-
(1)0
(1)1
(0)2
(1)3
Q178
Consider the situation as shown in the diagram :
The coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.5. The acceleration of the lower block is :-
(0)1 m/s2
(1)1.5 m/s2
(1)2 m/s2
(1)2.5 m/s2
Q179
Consider the situation as shown in the figure :-

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Question
(1)The acceleration of M is 2g/3
(1)The tension in the string connecting A and B is Mg/3
(1)The reaction on pulley A is at an angle 45° with the horizontal
(0)All the options are correct
Q180
A lift is moving in upward direction. The total mass of the lift and the passengers is 1600 kg. The variation of the velocity of the lift is as
shown in the figure. The tension in the rope at t = 8 second will be :-
th
(0)11200 N
(1)16000 N
(1)4800 N
(1)12000 N

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