3. PASSAGE I
Modern manpower planning, especially in developing countries focuses interest on formal schooling. Its
terminology is that of teacher student ratios, absorption and enrollment ratios, dropouts, repeaters,
general vs. technical education among others. The manpower planner assumes a certain demand
pattern, then valiantly plunges into the supply calculations, translating manpower requirements into an
educational plan. A thousand clerks are wanted in 2010. he is told. This means several thousands must
enter primary school now so that 12 years late we can get 1,000 secondary school graduates. He has
already defined a clerk to be the human being with twelve years of general education. He has calculated
dropout and other relevant ratios accurately. Thus, one thousand clerks will be delivered in 2010.
Problem is solved. If the reader feels a touch of sarcasm in the preceding portrayal of modern manpower
planning, he is to be assured that only skepticism is intended. For. in India as in Myanmar, Pakistan that
Taiwan, all densely- populated, basically agricultural countries - a great upsurge in manpower
development via schooling has taken place in the last 2S years. The impact of such development on
economic growth leaves much to be desired. These countries arc faced with severe problems in the
other important areas of manpower planning, namely manpower allocation and utilisation. Despite the
large numbers pouring out of the schooling system, shortages persist in certain occupations and
locations while redundant surpluses accumulate in others. The shortages arc not explained by the need
for more schooling but are due to the kind of training offered and the kind of employment desired by the
4. graduates. In most cases one is faced with the necessity to induce the prospective graduates to accept
less schooling instead of striving for more, where the ranks of the unemployed are full. The problem that
cries for greater attention is that of motivation of manpower. What induces people to join certain
schools and to continue their schooling? What are the incentives necessary to divert graduates from
certain occupations to others?
What motivates manpower to work in certain geographic locations and avoid others? What is the effect
of schooling itself on attitudes and motivation, and finally what motivates workers to produce, innovate,
cooperate, take risks and achieve higher productivity?
5. 01 Problem
According to the passage, the manpower development in developing countries
a. has brought tremendous economic growth to these countries
b. has increased manpower utilisation
c. has been brought through formal schooling
d. has increased the motivation and productivity of the work-force.
6. 02 Problem
To what does 'a touch of Sarcasm' refer?
a. Developing countries emphasis on transforming themselves rapidly from
agricultural to industrial countries
b. Establishment of Management Information Systems cells for collection of data
c. Proliferation of second-rate schools offering low quality of training
d. A manpower planner's simplistic assumptions and straight-forward
computations.
7. 03 Problem
Which of the following is not a reason for the observed imbalance in the
manpower requirements and the availability of the educated?
a. Need for more schooling
b. Kind of training offered
c. Kind of employment desired by the graduates
d. Being guided by a purely quantitative educational plan derived from various
relevant ratios.
8. PASSAGE II
There is something people like about rappelling or abseiling. A form of controlled descent used in
mountaineering, it follows the more gruelling task of climbing up. Of late, rappelling has found
popularity as a staged activity. Participants walk up a cliff or rock face, while securely anchored to at least
one safety rope that is released in controlled fashion from above. Some clubs keep a third line free for
instructors to come down and assist should anyone get stuck mid-route. Most important, participants
are allowed adequate pauses en route for that photograph of manhoods dawning, mama's precious boy
looking great on vertical rock. As many adventure clubs would tell you, very few of these muscle-totting,
fatigues-clad youngsters return to climbing t he phonograph endures; the mountain fades. Those who
stick on do so because of a deeper fascination, fully acknowledging their fragility and hardly resembling
the branded image of the adventurous. Further, as with the maturity curve in Indian sports, deep purses
do not always mean great talent; it is the progressive tapping of the pyramid's bottom end that reveals a
wider canvas of talent. The story is little different with automobiles, where self- image precedes utility in
vehicle purchase. Utility vehicles (UVs), sports utility vehicles (SlJVs) and a few crossovers make up the
'adventure vehicles' on Indian roads. In 2004-05, total domestic UV sales had increased by 20.46 per cent
to 176,339 units from 146,388 units. As at end August 2005, the trend for 2005-06 was a sales rise of
13.67 percent to 72,686 units for the category. Crossovers sell in very small volumes. So the country's
adventure vehicle story is mainly that of UVs. Of these the obviously brute types, that is. the big,
9. expensive SUVs - lord the relatively tame terrain of cities. Where else can the contrast be sharper? The
key thing is to be seen, seem adventurous and look capable of crushing all else on the road. A well
known fact is that beyond the odd automobile journalist who test-drives a 'brute' in testy terrain, most
owners of off- road studs dare not stray from the tarmac, as the vehicles arc expensive. In a cost-
conscious market like India with long periods of careful ownership, you could bunch a wide range of
vehicles from the cheapest Scorpio, costing around Rs. 7.3 lakhs (in Mumbai), to the costliest Porsche
Cayenne, selling at Rs. 92 lakhs, into this segment. Naturally therein, the base of ownership and the
tendency to punish the vehicle tapers with higher price points. So if the brutes arc largely doing tame
duty or. worse, showing off, where are the real adventure vehicles? To pick out that segment, one needs
to first outline the contours of Indian adventure. I.ike everything else, it tends to be and needs to be low
cost. Indian civilian mountaineering expeditions, for example - and there are several every year - travel
without radio contact, global positioning system or satellite phone and cut down on porters and use
borrowed or hired equipment - in short, rough it out wherever possible. The limited budget is entirely
skewed towards the final goal with the highest priority in expense for critical inputs (specialized
equipment, clothing shelter and food), all else enjoying lower priority. It is a bottom of the pyramid
consumer experience, one in which the final stages of transport are met by rugged, low-end UVs. In the
hills and mountains it is the Bolero, Sumo, Trax and their earlier brethren which remain trusted and are
10. worked hard on rough tracks every day. Mahindra and Mahindra (M & M), Tata Motors and Force Motors
(earlier Bajaj Tempo) make these vehicles. The companies are based in Maharashtra, which has the
highest number of adventure clubs in the country and a strong presence of the automobile industry.
While on a trek or rock climb in the Sahyadris, it is common to run into somebody from Tata Motors or
Tata Power, equally strong being the likelihood of having a batch-mate from one of the Tata companies if
you are training at a mountaineering institute in the Himalayas. Sadly, however, the economies of mass
manufacturing shy away from responding to niche segments and in India, adventure is a niche activity.
The market's darling therefore, remains the great Indian family or that faceless bunch of strangers,
jammed into a "people's carrier" No marks for guessing which is the adventurer's longstanding favourite
for personal transport. Although the price of petrol has risen, the one vehicle that consistently captured
the fancy of adventure enthusiasts was the Maruti Gypsy, now reduced to largely institutional sales. It
has the perfect size to manoeuvre on mountain roads, the best off-road vehicle around, commands
respect in remote areas, allows space for others on roads and, in the true spirit of the adventurer, has a
light-weight presence. No fanfare. It is the vehicle people will still give an arm and a leg to load up and
head for the crags. Interestingly, this size of the UV has been left unattended by all domestic
manufacturers, including Maruti, which has often described the Gypsy's small size and petrol engine as
potential sales dampeners. M & M has an engaging product in the larger Invader while Tata Motors and
11. Force Motors have kept out. But Maruti's own view was partly based on the Gypsy's limited ability as a
people mover. But the typical adventurer, the sort hailing from the bottom of the pyramid, would have
been happy with a manoeuvrable, off- road model that was backed by the country's largest vehicle
support network. Neither Maruti nor other manufacturers found it attractive. For the present, therefore,
India's adventure vehicles are gas-guzzlers, sold with little appreciation for the budget and requirement
of Indian adventurers.
12. 04 Problem
According to the author which type of items take priority due to the budget
constraints for adventure trips?
a. Porters
b. Global Positioning System
c. Specialized Equipment
d. Satellite Phone
13. 05 Problem
"It is the vehicle will still give an arm and a leg to load up and head for the crags."
Which one of the following is not a feature of the vehicle referred to in the above
sentence?
a. This vehicle can be manoeuvered smoothly on hilly roads.
b. The sales of this vehicle are mostly institutional
c. It is well accepted in remote areas.
d. It is the best vehicle for all terrains.
14. 06 Problem
Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the passage?
a. Abseiling has lately become popular as a staged activity.
b. India's adventure vehicles are manufactured and sold considering requirement
of Indian adventures.
c. Indian market is cost conscious with longer periods of careful ownerships.
d. Force Motors is the successor of Bajaj Tempo.
15. PASSAGE III
It is indisputable that in order to fulfill its many functions, water should be clean and biologically
valuable. The costs connected with the provision of biologically valuable water for food production with
the maintenance of sufficiently clean water are primarily production costs. Purely "environmental" costs
seem to be in this respect only costs connected with the safeguarding of cultural, recreational and sports
functions which the watercourses and reservoirs fulfill both in nature and in human settlements. The
pollution problems of the atmosphere resemble those of the water only partly. So far, the supply of air
has not been deficient as was the case with water, and the dimensions of the air-shed are so vast that a
number of people will hold the opinion that air need not be economized. However, scientific forecasts
have shown that the time may be already approaching when clear and biologically valuable air will
become problem. No. 1. Air being ubiquitous, people are particularly sensitive about any reduction in
the quality of the atmosphere, the increased contents of dust and gaseous exhalations, and particularly
about the presence of odours. The demand for purity of atmosphere, therefore emanates much more
from the population itself than from the specific sectors of the national economy affected by a polluted
or even biologically aggressive atmosphere. The households' share in atmospheric pollution is far bigger
that that of industry, which, in turn further complicates the economic problems of atmospheric purity.
Some countries have already collected positive experience with the reconstruction of whole urban
sectors on the basis of new heating appliances based on the combustion of solid f. il fuels; estimates of
16. the economic consequences of such measures have also been put forward. In contrast to water, where
the maintenance of purity would seem primarily to be related to the costs of production and transport, a
far higher proportion of the costs of maintaining the purity of the atmosphere .derives from
environmental considerations. Industrial sources of gaseous and dust emission are well known and
classified; their location can be accurately identified, which makes them controllable. With the
exception, perhaps, of the elimination of sulphur dioxide, technical means and technological processes
exist which can be used for the elimination of all excessive impurities of the air from the various
emissions. Atmospheric pollution caused by the private property of individuals (their dwellings,
automobiles etc) is difficult to control. Some sources such as motor vehicles are very? mobile, and they
are thus capable of polluting vast territories. In this particular case the cost of anti-pollution measures
will have to be borne, to a considerable extent, by individuals whether in the form of direct costs or
indirectly in the form of taxes, dues, surcharges etc. The problem of noise is a typical example of an
environmental problem which cannot be solved only passively, i.e. merely by protective measures, but
will require the adoption of active measures, i.e. direct interventions at the source. The costs of
complete protection against noise are so prohibitive as to make it unthinkable even in the economically
most developed countries. At the same time it would not seem feasible, either economically or
politically, to force the population to carry the costs of individual protection against noise, for example,
17. by reinforcing the sound insulation of their homes. A solution to this problem probably cannot be found
in the near future.
18. 07 Problem
In this passage, the word ubiquitous means:
a. being unfair
b. being every where
c. being iniquitous
d. ready to quit
19. 08 Problem
According to the passage, which one of the follow-ing contributes the most to
atmospheric pollution?
a. Production
b. Industry
c. Households
d. Mining
20. 09 Problem
According to the passage, atmospheric pollution caused by private property is
a. impossible to control
b. easy to control
c. difficult to control
d. decreasing
21. 10 Problem
Complete protection against noise:
a. is impossible to achieve
b. may be forthcoming in the near future
c. may have prohibitive costs
d. is possible only in developed countries.
22. PASSAGE IV
Unemployment is an important index of economic slack and lost output, but it is much more than that.
For the unemployed person it is often a damaging affront to human dignity and sometimes a
catastrophic blow to family life. Nor is this cost distributed in proportion to ability to bear it. It falls most
heavily on the young, the semiskilled and unskilled, the black person, the older worker, and the
underemployed person in a low income rural area who is denied the option of securing more rewarding
urban employment. The concentrated increase of unemployment among specific groups in the
population means far greater costs to society than can be measured simply in hours of involuntary
idleness or dollars of income lost. The extra costs include disruption of the careers of young people,
increased juvenile delinquency, and perpetuation of conditions which breed racial discrimination in
employment and otherwise deny equality of opportunity. There is another and more subtle cost. The
social and economic strains of prolonged underutilization create strong pressures for cost increasing
solutions. On the side of labour, prolonged high unemployment leads to "share the work" pressures for
shorter hours, intensifies resistance to technological change and to rationalization of work rules, and, in
general, increase incentives for restrictive and inefficient measures to protect existing jobs. On the side
of business, the weakness of markets leads to attempts to raise prices to cover high average overhead
costs and to pressures for protection against foreign and domestic competition. On the side of
agriculture, higher prices arc necessary to achieve income objectives, when urban and industrial demand
23. for food and fibres is depressed and lack of opportunities for jobs and higher incomes in industry keep
people on the farm. In all these cases, the problems are real and the claims understandable. But the
solutions suggested raise costs and promote inefficiency. By no means the least of advantages of full
utilization will be diminution of these pressures. They will be weaker, and they can be more firmly
resisted in good conscience, when markets arc generally strong and job opportunities are plentiful. The
demand for labour is derived from the demand for the goods and services which labour participates in
producing. Thus, unemployment will be reduced to 4 percent of the labour force only when the demand
for the myriad of goods and services - automobiles, clothing, food, electric generators, highways, and
soon - is sufficiently great in total to require the productive efforts of 96 percent of the civilian labour
force. Although many goods are initially produced as materials or components to meet demands related
to the further production of other goods, all goods (and services) are ultimately destined to satisfy
demands that can, for convenience, be classified into four categories: consumer demand, business
demand for new plants and machinery and for additions to inventories, net export demand of foreign
buyers, and demand of government units, federal, state, and local. Thus Gross National Product (GNP)
out total output, is the sum of four major components of expenditure: personal consumption
expenditure, gross private domestic investment, net exports, and government purchases of goods and
services. The primary line of attack on the problem of unemployment must be through measures which
24. will expand one or more of these components of demand. Once a satisfactory level of employment has
been achieved in a growing economy, economic stability requires the maintenance of a continuing
balance between growing productive capacity and growing demand. Action to expand demand is called
for not only when demand actually declines and recession appears but even when the rate of growth of
demand falls short of the rate of growth of capacity.
25. 11 Problem
In this passage, the word involuntary means:
a. not free
b. without exercise of the will
c. done gratuitously
d. not desirable
26. 12 Problem
According to the passage, a typical business reac-tion to a recession is to press for
a. protection against imports
b. higher unemployment insurance
c. restrictive business practices
d. restraint on union activity
27. 13 Problem
Gross National Product (GNP) is a measure of:
a. our total output
b. our personal consumption
c. our net exports
d. our domestic investment
28. 14 Problem
According to the passage, a satisfactory level of unemployment is
a. 90 percent of the civilian workforce
b. 85 percent of the civilian workforce
c. 4 percent unemployment
d. 2 percent unemployment
29. Solution
Every profession or trade, every art. and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which
is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English, and partly to secure
greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects, or jargons, are necessary in technical
discussions of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees of tTie particular science or art,
they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more
economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technicaHerms are very properly
included in every large dictionary, yet as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language
than actually within its borders. Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their
special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vocations, such as farming and fishing, that
have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. It consists
largely of native words, or of borrowed words that have worked themselves into the very fibre of our
language. Hence though highly technical in many particulars, these vocabularies are more familiar in
sound, and more generally understood, than most other technicalities. The special dialects of law,
medicine, divinity, and philosophy have also, in their older strata, become pretty familiar to cultivated
persons, and have contributed much to the popular vocabulary. Yet, every vocation still possesses a large
body of technical terms that remain essentially foreign, even to educated speech. And the proportion
has been much increased in the last fifty years, particularly in the various departments of natural and
30. political science and in the mechanic arts. Here new terms are coined with the greatest freedom, and
abandoned with indifference when they have served their turn. Most of the new coinages are confined
to special discussions and seldom get intoteneral literature or conversation. Yet, no profession is
nowadays, as all professions once were, a closed guild. The lawyer, the physician, the man of science and
the cleric associated freely with his fellow creatures, and does not meet them in a merely professional
way. Furthermore, what is called popular science makes everybody acquainted with modern views and
recent discoveries. Any important experiment, though made in a remote or provincial laboratory, is at
once reported in the newspapers, and everybody is soon talking about it as in the case of the Roentgen
rays and wireless telegraphy. Thus, our common speech is always taking up new technical terms and
making them commonplace.
31. 15 Problem
By saying that professions are no longer 'closed guilds,' the author means that
a. it is easier to become a professional today
b. there is more intercourse between professionals and others
c. popular science has revealed its secrets to the world
d. anything can be easily understood by anyone in a profession
32. 16 Problem
The vocabulary of vocations like farming and fish-ing has got in the 'fibre’ of
English language, im-plies that
a. it consists of native words
b. it consists of borrowed words
c. it is used by large number of men
d. it is very very old
33. Directions (Questions 17-21):
A sentence with one or more blanks is followed by four alternatives. Select the
most appropriate alternative to fill up these blanks most meaningfully.
34. 17 Problem
The present constitution will see_____ amendments but its basic structure will
survive.
a. many more
b. much more
c. too many more
d. quite a few more
35. 18 Problem
The man who is impatient to become rich can eas-ily be______ to the race track
or the gaming table, where a lucky ______ might make him rich.
a. evoked, streak
b. enticed, chance
c. pushed, moment
d. lured, break
36. 19 Problem
Education is central because electronic networks and software driven
technologies are beginning to the economic barriers between na-tions.
a. break
b. breakdown
c. crumble
d. dismantle
37. 20 Problem
why did you_______ yourself from duty sturdy, when there was urgent work to
be done?
a. absurd
b. absolve
c. absent
d. abstain
38. 21 Problem
any people in Delhi celebrated Diwali in a grand way__________ the high
prices
a. in spite of
b. even though
c. because of
d. even if
39. Directions (Questions 22-25):
Each question has a pair of capitalized words followed by four pairs of words..
Choose the pair of words that best expresses the relationship similar to that
expressed in the
original capitalized pair.
40. 22 Problem
GARBAGE : SQUALOR : :
a. colour: brush
b. direct: cleanliness
c. diamond: magnificence
d. poor: hunger
41. 23 Problem
STAIN : HONOUR : :
a. loss : fame
b. blot: escutcheon
c. doubt: reputation
d. slander: integrity
42. 24 Problem
DUNCE : CLEVER : :
a. fearful: courage
b. beautiful: attractive
c. worry: poor
d. flower: petals
43. 25 Problem
REPROOF : SCOI D : :
a. salient: prominent
b. chastise : erring
c. romantic: strong
d. respite: spite
45. 26 Problem
1. The list of horrors goes on.
A. And one is every five is malnourished.
B. This is because local clinics, ill - equipped to
C. deal with even small things, either do not work or simply do not exist.
D. Nobody has been able to figure out a way of reduce the speed that is at the root of India's over-
population problems: a baby born every second.
E. There is such an acute shortage of treatment centers that premier hospitals are choked with
patients who show up to treat their coughs and colds.
6. Kalvan Bancrjee, a consultant at the hospital is worried.
a. DACB
b. CDAB
c. DBAC
d. CADB
46. 27 Problem
1. Lit was something I knew that it would give me a chance to be my own boss.
A. 1 could have more except that supervision becomes difficult.
B. Today I have 800 on my staff, office and members
C. The moment I announced I was starting a business, people started contacting me.
D. I was sick of working for others.
6. Our clients are well known industrialists and organizations, many of whom were in touch
were in touch with me when I was in the services
a. ABDC "
b. DBAC
c. DCBA
d. BADC
47. 28 Problem
1 .Fire ripped through another pipeline in southern Nigeria, killing at least 40 people.
A. The explosion was the third in two weeks.
B. Police were deployed to stop villagers from stealing fuel from other pipelines.
C. Local politicians have blamed this vandalism on cartels.
D. Once the cartels have siphoned off fuel, impoverished locals move in to collect what
they can for sale to passing motorists.
6. But pipelines often explode, and the practice has left about 2000 people deed in the past
two years.
a. A BCD
b. ACBD
c. CABD
d. CBDA
48. 29 Problem
1. Reservation should not exceed,50% for the civil services for want of balance and efficiency.
A. If reservation is 50% it is adequate for aspirants from reserved category and even unreserved
category to get an equal opportunity.
B. The number of aspirants to the civil services in India is very large and they come from various socio-
economic backgrounds.
C. These aspirants come from both reserved and unreserved category.
D. But if reservation were to exceed 50% mark, a lot of deserving candidates from unreserved category
would be deprived of a chance.
6. Thus to achieve optimum efficiency, it is essential to maintain a maximum of 50% reservation.
a. ADBC
b. BCAD
c. CABD
d. BADC
49. 30 Problem
This is a company that prides itself on its carefully matured extensive distribution blocks and
mentor
network.
A. The company also plans a foray into the service sector by setting up a chain of
launderettes across the country.
B. Yet today, pre-cooked chapattis and ready-made mixes are a big market.
C. And that's not all.
D. Today the idea may appear a trifle ambitious but remember that it was not so long ago
that the same things were said about the market for ready to eat foods and branded
cereals.
6. Disposable incomes are rising in the metros and big cities and time is at a premium .
a. CADB
b. ADBC
c. ABDC
50. Directions (Questions 31-35):
In the folio-wing questions a sentence is spilt into four parts. Mark the part of
the sentence that has a grammatical error.
51. 31 Problem
a. The best
b. idea can
c. come from the
d. newest persons
52. 32 Problem
a. It may also be an advertisement
b. as its opponents argue
c. but we must realize
d. that nothing come free
53. 33 Problem
a. by virtue of
b. how different these business is
c. all acquisitions have
d. different profit and revenue potential
54. 34 Problem
a. We are an UK based consultancy firm
b. and have been retained
c. to provide services to
d. an Indian client
55. 35 Problem
a. their reputation as a manufacturer
b. of quality generating sets
c. are backed by the number and diversity of global businesses
d. that rely on them to support their power needs.
56. Directions (Questions 36-40):
Each question has four words marked A, B. C and D; of which two words are
most nearly SAME or OPPOSITE in meaning. Choose one such pair from the
alternatives given.
57. 36 Problem
A. altruism
B. selfishness
C. misuse
D. Decision
a. A-C
b. A-B
c. B-C
d. B-D
58. 37 Problem
A. acquittal
B. contract
C. conviction
D. Replete
a. B-C
b. A-B
c. C-D
d. A-C
59. 38 Problem
A. generous
B. mundane
C. reciprocal
D. Earthly
a. B-D
b. A-B
c. B-C
d. A-C
60. 39 Problem
A. crammed
B. frugal
C. novel
D. Extravagant
a. C-D
b. A-D
c. B-C
d. B-D
61. 40 Problem
A. adorn
B. afford
C. accumulate
D. Debase
a. B-C
b. C-D
c. B-D
d. A-D
63. 41 Problem
The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is rung at regular intervals of 45
minutes. The last bell was rung 5 minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at
7.45 am". At what time did the priest give this information to the devotee?
a. 7.00 am
b. 7.05 am
c. 7.40 am
d. 6.55 am
64. 42 Problem
Salaries of A, B and C were in the ratio 3:5:7, respectively. If their salaries were
increased by 50%, 60% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of their
respective salaries?
a. 4:5:7
b. 3 : 6 : 7
c. 4:15:18
d. 9:16:21
65. 43 Problem
A began a business with R$. 4,500 and was joined afterwards by B with Rs. 5,400.
If the profits at the end of the year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1, B joined the
business after:
a. 5 months
b. 4 Months
c. 6 months
d. 7 months
66. 44 Problem
Sumit lent some money to Mohit at 5% per annum simple interest. Mohit lent the
entire amount to Birju on the same day at 8 Vi % per annum. In this trans-action,
after a year Mohit earned a profit of Rs. 350. Find the sum of money lent by
Sumit to Mohit.
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs.9,000
c. Rs. 10,200
d. None of these
67. 45 Problem
A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts in 3 years to Rs. 2,400
and in 4 years to Rs. 2,520. The interest rate per annum is:
a. 6%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 12%
68. 46 Problem
An article is listed at Rs. 65. A customer bought this article for Rs. 56.16 and got
two successive discounts of which one is 10%. The other rate of discount of this
scheme that was allowed by the shopkeeper was:
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 2%
69. 47 Problem
A can do a piece of work in 10 days, while B alone can do it in 15 days. They work
together for 5 days and the rest of the work is done by C in 2 days. If they get Rs.
450 for the whole work, how should they divide the money?
a. Rs. 225, Rs. 150, Rs. 75
b. Rs.250, Rs. 100, Rs. 100
c. Rs. 200, Rs. 150, Rs. 100
d. Rs. 175, Rs. 175, Rs. 100
70. 48 Problem
In what proportion must water be added to spirit to gain 20% by selling it at the
cost price?
a. 2:5
b. 1 :5
c. 3:5
d. 4:5
71. 49 Problem
The capital of a company is made up of 50000 pre-ferred shares with dividend of
20% and 20000 com-mon shares, the par value of each ty pe of share being Rs.
10. Th company had a total profit of Rs. 1,80,000 out of which Rs. 30,000 was
kept in reserve fund and the remaining distributed to share-holders. Find the
dividend percent to the common shareholders.
a. 20%
b. 24%
c. 25%
d. 30%
72. 50 Problem
It is required to fix a pipe such that water flowing through it at a speed of 7
metres per minute fills a tank of capacity 440 cubic metres in 10 minutes. The
inner radius of the pipe should be
a. “2m
b. 2 m
c. 1/2 m
d. 1/”2m
73. 51 Problem
An anti-aircraft gun can take a maximum of four shots at an enemy plane moving
away from it. The probability of hitting the plane at the first, second, third and
fourth shots are 0.4, 0.3,0.2 and 0.1, re-spectively. What is the probability that
the plane is hit when all the four shots are fired?
a. 0.6872
b. 0.4379
c. 0.6976
d. None of these
74. 52 Problem
A and B throw a coin alternately till one of them gets a head and wins the game.
If A starts the game, find the probability of winning by A:
a. 2/3
b. 1/3
c. 1
d. None of these
75. 53 Problem
Recently, while in London, I decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station.
1 did some quick calculation in my mind. I found that if I walk down twenty-six
steps, I require thirty seconds to reach the bottom. However, if I am able to step
down thirty-four stairs I would only require eighteen sec-onds to get to the
bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend
to the time I step off the last step at the bottom, can you tell the height of the
stairway in steps?
a. 44
b. 48
c. 46
d. 42
76. 54 Problem
Rohit, Marsha and Sanjeev are three typists who, working simultaneously can
type 216 pages in four hours. In one hour Sanjeev can type as many pages more
than Marsha as Marsha can type more than Rohit. During a period of five hours,
Sanjeev can type as many pages as Rohit can during seven hours. How many
pages does each of them type per hour respectively?
a. 14,17,20
b. 16,18,22
c. 15,17.22
d. 15,18,21
77. 55 Problem
Wheels of diameters 7 cm and 14 cm start rolling simultaneously from X and Y,
which are 1,980 cm apart, towards each other in opposite directions. Both of
them make same number of revolutions per second. If both of them meet after
10 seconds, the speed of the smaller wheel is
a. 44 cm/sec
b. 22 cm/sec
c. 66 cm/see
d. 132 cm/sec
78. 56 Problem
An express train travelled at an average speed of 100 kmph, stopping for 3
minutes after 75 km. A local train travelled as a speed of 50 kmph, stop-ping for I
minute after every 25 km. If the trains began travelling at the same time, how
many kilometres did the local train travel in the time it took the express train to
travel 600 km?
a. 900 km
b. 307.5 km
c. 1200 km
d. 1000 km
79. 57 Problem
If the three segments inside the rectangle are equal, then the sum of their
lengths is:
a. 5
b. 12
c. 18
d. 15
80. 58 Problem
Running at the same constant rate. 6 identical ma-chines can produce a total
of270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such ma-chines
produce in 4 minutes?
a. 1,800
b. 648
c. 2,700
d. 10,800
81. 59 Problem
The population of a city increases at a rate of 4% per annum. There is an
additional annual increase of I % in the population due to the influx of job
seek-ers. The % increase in the population after 2 years is therefore
a. 10.25
b. 10
c. 10.50
d. 10.75
82. 60 Problem
A scooter costs Rs. 25, 000 when it is brand new. At the end of each year, its value
is only 80% of what it was at the beginning of the year. What is the value of the
scooter at the end of the 3 years?
a. Rs. 12,500
b. Rs. 10,000
c. Rs. 12.800
d. Rs. 12,000
83. 61 Problem
Two series of a question booklet for an aptitude test are to be given to twelve
students. In how many ways can the students be placed in two rows of six each
so that there could be no identical series side by side and that the students sitting
one behind the other should have the same scries?
a. 6! x 6!
b. 2 x ,2C6 x (61)2
c. 7! x 7!
d. None of these
84. 62 Problem
How can the relationship between x and y be best defined, if values of x and y are
as follows?
X 2 3 4 5 6
y 0 2 6 12 20
a. y = 2x-4
b. y = x2 - 3x + 2
c. y = x2--4x
d. y = x2 -
85. 63 Problem
A hemispherical bowl is made of steel 0.5 cm thick. The inside radius of the bowl
is 4 cm. The value of steel used in making the bowl is:
a. 56.83 cm2
b. 55.83 cm2
c. 57.83 cm
d. 58.83 cm3
86. 64 Problem
Two equal sums of money are lent at the same time at 8% and 7% per annum
simple interest. The former is recovered 6 months earlier than the latter and the
amount in each case is Rs. 2,560. The sum and the time for which the sums of
money are lent out arc
a. Rs. 2,000, 3.5 years and 4 years
b. Rs. 1,500, 3.5 years and 4 years
c. Rs. 2,000, 4 years and 5.5 years
d. Rs. 3.000, 4 years and 4.5 years
87. 65 Problem
Find the least number which on being divided by 5, 6, 8, 9, 12 leaves in each case
a remainder 1, but when divided by 13 leaves no remainder.
a. 5501
b. 3601
c. 3701
d. 3801
88. 66 Problem
A gardener had a number of shrubs to plant in rows. At first he Iried to plani 2 in
each row, then 3, then 4. then 5 and then 6 but always, 1 left. On trying 7, he had
none left. What is the smallest number of shrubs he could have had?
a. 201
b. 401
c. 501
d. 301
89. 67 Problem
The water in a rectangular reservoir hav ing a base 80 metres by 60 metres is 6.5
metres deep. In what time can the water be emptied by a pipe of which the cross
section is a square of side 20 cm, if the water runs through the pipe at the rate of
15 km per hour?
a. 52 hrs
b. 26 hrs
c. 65 hrs
d. 42 hrs
90. 68 Problem
The driving when of a locomotive engine 2.1 m in radius makes 75 revolutions in
one minute. Find the speed of the train in km/hr
a. 60 km/hr
b. 59.4 km/hr
c. 61.5 km/hr
d. None of these
91. 69 Problem
A rectangular lawn 80 metres by 60 metres has two roads each 10 metres wide
running in the middle of it, one parallel to the length and the other parallel to the
breadth. Find the cost of gravelling them at Rs. 30 per square metre.
a. Rs. 39.000
b. Rs. 3,900
c. Rs. 3,600
d. Rs. 36,000
92. 70 Problem
The length of a room is double the breath. The cost of colouring the ceiling at Rs.
25 per sq m is Rs. 5,000 and the cost of painting the four walls at Rs. 240 per sq m
is Rs. 64,80b. Find the height of the room.
a. 4.5 m
b. 4 m
c. 3.5 m
d. 5 m
93. 71 Problem
The speed of motor boat of length 20 metres in water without current is 40
km/hr. If the motor boat, sailing against a river current of 4 km/hr crosses a
temple on the bank in 109 seconds, find the length of the temple.
a. 70 m
b. 80 m
c. 350 m
d. 200 m
94. 72 Problem
Without any stoppage a person travels a certain distance at an average speed of
42 km/hr, and with stoppages he covers the same distance at an aver-age speed
of 28 km/hr. How many minutes per hour does he stop?
a. 14 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 28 minutes
d. 20minutes
95. 73 Problem
What are the values of x that will satisfy the condi-tion 1 < 3x-5 < 10:
a. 2 < x < 5
b. x < 2 or x > 5
c. 2 > x > - 5
d. 1/3 <x <3 1/3
96. 74 Problem
Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly
with the number of board-ers. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 when
there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600 when there arc 50 boarders. What is the
average expense per boarder when there arc 100 boarders?
a. 550
b. 560
c. 540
d. 560
97. 75 Problem
Subash purchased a refrigerator on the terms that he is required to pay Rs. 1,500
cash down payment followed by Rs. 1,020 at the end of first year, Rs. 1,003 at the
end of second year and Rs. 990 at the end of third year. Interest is charged at the
rate of 10% per annum. Calculate the cash price
a. Rs. 3,000
b. Rs. 2,000
c. Rs 4,000
d. Rs. 5,000
98. 76 Problem
Mr. Yadav spends 60% of his monthly salary on consumable items and 50% of the
remaining on clothes and transport. He saves the remaining amount. If his
savings at the end of the year were Rs. 48,456, how much amount per month
would he have spent on clothes and transport?
a. Rs. 8,076
b. Rs. 4,038
c. Rs. 9,691.20
d. Rs. 4,845.60
99. 77 Problem
Three partners altogether invested Rs 1,14,000 in a business. At the end of the
year, one got Rs. 337.50, the second Rs. 1,125 and the third Rs. 675 as profit.
What is the percentage of profit?
a. 4.8%
b. 3.8%
c. 1.8%
d. 2.8%
100. 78 Problem
The average score of boys in an examination of a school is 71 and that of the girls
is 73. The average score of the school in that examination is 71.8. Find the ratio of
the number of boys to the number of girls that appeared in the examination.
a. 4:5
b. 3:2
c. 3:5
d. . 5:2
101. 79 Problem
There are two examination rooms A and B. If 10 candidates arc sent from A to B,
the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from
B to A, the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. Find
the num-ber of students in each room.
a. 100 in A and 80 in B
b. 80 in A and 100 in B
c. 120 in A and 100 in B
d. 100 in A and 120 in B
102. 80 Problem
The charges for a five day trip by a tourist bus for one full ticket and a half-ticket
are Rs 1,440 inclu-sive of boarding charges which are same for a full ticket and a
half ticket. The charges for the same trip for 2 full tickets and one half-ticket
inclusive of boarding charges are Rs. 2,200. The fare for a half- ticket is 75% of the
full ticket. Find the fare and the boarding charges separately for one full ticket.
a. Rs. 580, Rs. 400
b. Rs. 280, Rs. 200
c. Rs. 480, Rs. 300
d. Rs. 380, Rs. 400
104. Directions (Questions 81-85):
Each of these has a question followed by two statements numbered I and II. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark answer as
1. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement I in alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement 11 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4. if the data in statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
105. 81 Problem
How much minimum marks will be required to pass an examination?
I. Student A secured 32% marks in that examination and he failed by 1 mark.
Student B secured 36% marks in the same examination and his marks were I
more than the minimum pass marks.
II. Student A secured 30% of full marks in the examination and he failed by 2
marks. If he had secured 5 more marks his percentage of marks would have
been 40%.
106. 82 Problem
X, Y and Z are integers. Is X an odd number?
I. An odd number is obtained when X is divided by 5.
II. (X + Y) is an odd number.
107. 83 Problem
What selling price should be marked on the article?
I. Discount of 5% is to be given and profit percentage should be double the
discount. Purchase cost is in the range ^f Rs. 300 - 400.
II. 10% discount is to be allowed and 15% profit is to be obtained on the
purchase cost of Rs. 200 of the article.
108. 84 Problem
What is the height of a right angled triangle?
I. The area of the right angled triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle whose
breath is 12 cm
II. The length of the rectangle is 18 cm.
109. 85 Problem
A, B and C are integers. Is B an even number?
I. (A + B) is an odd number
II. (C + B) is an odd number
110. Directions (Questions 86-88):
Each of these has a question followed by three statements numbered I, II and III.
Decide data in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
111. 86 Problem
How much will be the cost of carpeting a rectan-gular hall?
I. Perimeter of a rectangle is 60 m
II. Angle between width and hypotenuse is 60°.
III. The cost of carpeting the surface floor is Rs. 125 per sq m.
a. Only II and III
b. Only I and II
c. Only I and II or only II and III
d. All the three statements I, II and III together a necessary for answering the
question.
112. 87 Problem
In how many days can a work be completed by A and B together?
I. A alone can complete the work in 8 days.
II. If A alone works for 5 days and B alone works for 6 days the work gets
completed.
III. B alone can complete the work in 16 days.]
a. II and either I or III
b. Any two of the three
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
113. 88 Problem
Which is the two-digit number?
I. The difference between the two-digit number and the number formed by
interchanging the digits is 27.
II. The difference between the two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at ten's place by 3.
a. Only I and either II or III
b. Only I and II
c. Only I and III
d. Even with all the three statements the answer cannot be given.
114. Directions (Questions 89-90):
Each of these has a question followed by three statements marked A, B and C.
Decide which statement (s) is/are redundant and not required to answer the
question.
115. 89 Problem
The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest at the
same rate on a certain amount at the end of two years is Rs. 12.50. What is the
rate of interest?
I. Simple interest for two years is Rs. 500.
II. Compound interest for two years is Rs. 512.50.
III. Amount on simple interest after two years becomes Rs. 5,500.
a. A or C only
b. A or B only
c. C only
d. Any two of A, B and C
116. 90 Problem
What is the area of right-angled triangle?
I. The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm.
II. The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5: 12.
III. The area of the triangle is equal to the area of rectangle of length 10 cm.
a. Only A and B together are required.
b. Only B and C together are required.
c. Only either A or B and C together are required.
d. None of these
117. Directions (Questions 91-92):
Study the information given below to answer these questions.
Investing in real estate would be profitable venture at this time. A survey in
House magazine revealed that 85% of the magazine's readers are planning to buy
a second home over the next tew years. A study of the real estate industry,
however, revealed that the current supply of homes could only provide for 65%
of that demand each year.
118. 91 Problem
Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
a. Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country.
b. Real estate is a highly labour-intensive business.
c. Hie number of people who want second homes has been increasing each year
for the past 10 years.
d. Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second
homes.
119. 92 Problem
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment
advice in the para-graph above?
a. About half of the people who buy homes arc investing in their first home.
b. Some home owners are satisfied with only one home.
c. Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first 2 weeks.
d. Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end
up purchasing one.
121. 93 Problem
The 2000-2002 gross receipts for Mega Burger exceeded those of Pizza Pie by
approximately Rs.
a. 2million
b. 0.2million
c. 8.2 million
d. 8.4 million
122. 94 Problem
The percent increase in receipts for Pizza Pie ex-ceeded the percent increase of
Mega Burger by approximately how much in the given period?
a. 2%
b. 0%
c. 10%
d. 15%
123. 95 Problem
The 2002 decline in Crunchy Chicken receipts may be attributed to
a. increase in popularity of pizzas
b. increase in popularity of burgers
c. decrease in demand for chicken
d. Cannot be determined
124. Directions (questions 96-98):
Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in
Column B. Compare the two quantities and mark your answer as
1. if the quantity in Column B is greater
2. if the quantity in Column A is greater
3. if the two quantities are equal
4. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
125. 96 Problem
Column A Column B
The number of posts needed for a fence 12 posts 144 m long when posts are
placed 12 m apart
127. 98 Problem
Column A Column B
The average of "81, 60%. 1 ½ 3
128. Directions (Questions 99-100):
Refer to the following bar chart to answer these questions.
Electronic Goods: How much Required and where Acquired (in 000 for the year
2000).
129. 99 Problem
Australia's exports to Japan, South Asia and Rus-sia in 2000 is approximately
thousands.
a. 160
b. 185
c. 270
d. Cannot be determined
130. 100 Problem
The given year, total domestic demand of Russia and East Europe is __________
thousand
a. more than 50
b. 50
c. Less than 50
d. Cannot be determined
131. Directions (Questions 101-102):
Study and analyze the table given below the answer these questions
Production, Export and Consumption of Coffee (Qty in lakh tonnes)
Year Production Export Rs. Crore Domestic Consumption
Qty Qty. USS Million Qty
1990-91 1.70 1.00 279 108 0.54
1696-97 2.05 1.81 1467 452 0.55
1997-98 2.28 1.79 1708 477 0.50
1998-99 2.65 2.12 1752 431 0.50
1999- 2.92 2.45 1901 447 0.55
2000
2000-01 3.01 2.47 1374 334 0.58
2001-02 3.06 2.13 1050 246 0.60
132. 101 Problem
The highest percentage of domestic consumption with reference to the
production of coffee has been in the year______________ during the given
period.
a. 2000-01
b. 2001-02
c. 1996-97
d. 1990-91
133. Directions for questions 102 to 106:
The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most
logical order for sentences to construct a coherent paragraph.
134. 102 Problem
During the given period though the largest quantity of coffee exported has
been___________ lakh tones, the foreign exchange earned in dollars has been
the highest in the year
a. 2.47,1997-98
b. 3.01,1999-2000
c. 3.06,1997-98
d. None of these
135. Directions (Questions 103-106):
Answer these questions based on the data given in the table which shows the
instalment amounts for monthly repayments (in Rupees) on housing loans for
different periods.
Loan Amount (Rs) Repayment Period (Years)
Rs. 10 15 20 25
1,00,000 1250 1050 900 850
2,00,000 2500 2050 1800 1600
10,00,000 12950 10300 9000 8450
15,00,000 19400 15450 13500 12650
20,00,000 25900 20600 18000 16800
136. 103 Problem
How much more money would be paid on a loan of Rs. 20,00,000 taken out over
20 years compared to the same loan taken over a period of 15 years?
a. Rs. 4,25,000
b. Rs. 3,00,000
c. Rs. 5,50,000
d. Rs. 6,12,000
137. Solution
Answer is :- (d)
Required difference = ( 18000 x 12x20)- (20600 x 12 x 15) = 612000.
138. 104 Problem
What is the total amount repaid over 25 years on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000?
a. Rs. 37,95,000
b. Rs. 22,50,000
c. Rs. 45,30,000
d. Rs. 55,70,000
139. 105 Problem
The monthly repayment on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs.
12,500. By how much would this reduce the total amount on the loan over the
full period?
a. Rs 2,40,000
b. Rs. 1,30,000
c. Rs. 2,24,000
d. Rs. 1,26,000
140. 106 Problem
Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 with a repayment period of 15 years, the
society proposes to take a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years to
provide for a generator set. What is the cumulative financial impact?
a. Rs 4,4,000
b. Rs. 4,54,000
c. Rs. 5,67,000
d. Cannot be assessed
141. Directions (Questions 107-109):
The pie chart given below shows that finding arrangements for National
Highways Development Projects - Phase 1. Study the chart carefully to answer
these questions
Funding arrangements for NHDP-1 (Total cost: Rs. 30,300 crores) A - Annuity S -
SPVs T - Toll C - C'ess/Market Borrowings E - External Assistance Values:
C = 16846 S = 1902 T = 1690 A = 2000 E = 7862
142. 107 Problem
Near about 25% of the funding arrangement is through
a. External assistance
b. Cess/Market borrowing
c. Annuity
d. SPVS
143. 108 Problem
The angle of the segment formed at the center of the pie chart, representing
Cess/Market Borrow-ings is approximately
a. 100°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 200°
144. 109 Problem
If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a
maximum of 10% commis-sion, how much amount should be permitted to be
collected by the outsourced agency, so that the project is supported with Rs.
1,690 crores?
a. Rs. 1,859 crores
b. Rs. 1,690 crores
c. Rs. 16.900 crores
d. Inadequate data
145. Directions (Questions 110-113):
These questions are based on Graphs 1 and 2. Graph 1 represents the
performance of three students for time taken' in a learning task across five trials
while Graph 2 represents 'errors made' across them.
146.
147. 110 Problem
Which student is a better performer on the basis of time graph?
a. Student two
b. Student one
c. Student three
d. Cannot be said from the given information
148. 111 Problem
Who is a better performer on the basis of the 'er-rors graph'?
a. Student two
b. Student one
c. Student three
d. None of them
149. 112 Problem
Who is a better performer if improvements in both time as well as errors is taken
into account?
a. Student two
b. Student one
c. Student three
d. None of them
150. 113 Problem
Suppose an inverse relationship exists between 'time and errors' i.e. if a student
tries to reduce time then the errors increase and vice versa. In which case is this
relationship the most pronounced?
a. Student two
b. Student one
c. Student three
d. None of them
151. Directions (Questions 114 - 117):
Refer to the following tables A. B and C to answer the questions given below.
Table - A: Manpower Costs for a Building Project in Narhi (All costs in Rs)
Project Managers Engineers Skilled Unskilled Supervisors
Phase workers workers
Design 1 3 - - -
Foundation 1 2 5 23 2
Construction 1 2 12 43 4
Finishing 1 3 15 31 6
(Internal)
Painting 1 0 5 23 3
152. Table - B: Cost per month for select Category of workers
Manpower Cost (in RS.)
Managers 10,000
Engineers 8,000
Supervisors 5,000
Skilled worker 3,000
unskilled worker 1,800
153. Table C: Estimated Time and the Actual Time Required for each phase of the
project in months
Design Foundation Construction Finishing Painting
Actual 5 3 8 4 2
Estimated 3 2 6 3 2
154. 114 Problem
What was the phase in which there was the high-est absolute increase between
the estimated and actual cost?
a. Design
b. Foundation
c. Construction
d. Cannot be determined
155. 115 Problem
For which phase of the project was there the high-est percentage increase in cost
(as compared to the estimated cost)?
a. Design
b. Foundation
c. Construction
d. Cannot be determined
156. 116 Problem
What is the value of the percentage overflow in costs during construction?
(approximately)
a. 33.33%
b. 50%
c. 66.66%
d. None of these
157. 117 Problem
If internal finishing and painting can be started si-multaneously at the end of
construction, then what is the overflow of the project as a percentage of the
estimated total time of completion of the project?
a. 33.33%
b. 27.27%
c. 42.85%
d. Cannot be determined
158. Directions (Questions 118-120):
Refer to the graph given below which gives the circulation growth of
GRAMSEWA magazine from July to December, 2003.
159. 118 Problem
During November and December, there was an even growth rate, the average of
which is
a. 2%
b. 2.36%
c. 2.86%
d. 3.36%
160. 119 Problem
The circulation in October is that of July.
a. 2
b. 1.5
c. 1
d. 1.15
161. 120 Problem
The growth rate is very marginal during the month of
a. October
b. August
c. November
d. December
163. Directions (Questions 121-123):
Study the information given below to answer these questions.
I. There is a family of 5 persons A. B, C, D and E.
II. They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer and a farmer.
III. B. an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.
IV. R. a lawyer, is the brother of C.
V. C is the husband of the only married couple in the family.
VI. A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter.
VII. Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor.
164. 121 Problem
Which of the following is a group of female mem-bers in the family?
a. D and E
b. B and D
c. A, C and E
d. B and C
165. 122 Problem
Which of the following is the married couple?
a. C and D
b. A and B
c. A and D
d. B and D
166. 123 Problem
Which of the following is a group of male members in the family?
a. B and D
b. A, B and C
c. A, C and E
d. A, C and D
168. 124 Problem
Given Set: (6, 15,28)
a. (46,56,66)
b. (50,59,71)
c. (60,69,72)
d. (60,69,82)
169. 125 Problem
Given Set: (81, 77, 69)
a. (64,61,53)
b. (56,52,44)
c. (92,88,79)
d. (75,71,60)
170. Directions (Questions 126-128):
Six products U, V, W. X, Y and Z are to be placed in display windows of a shop.
There are sbc display windows numbered I, 2. 3, 4, 5, 6 and one product is to be
put in one window. Moreover U cannot be immediately to the left or immediately
to the right of V. W must be immediately to the left of X. Z cannot be in window
number 6.
171. 126 Problem
Which of the following products cannot be placed in the window no. I?
a. V
b. U
c. W
d. X
172. 127 Problem
If X is placed in window no. 3, W must be placed in which window?
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 5
173. 128 Problem
If U is placed in window no. 5, which of the follow-ing products must be placed in
window no. 6?
a. W
b. V
c. X
d. Y
174. Directions (Questions 129-131):
Each of these questions has one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Mark your
answer as
1. if both A and R are correct but R docs not explain A. i
2. if both A and R are correct and R explains A.
3. if A is correct but R is wrong.
4. if A is wrong but R is correct.
175. 129 Problem
Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water where a fresh water fish never
drinks water.
Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hypertonic to its environment while a freshwater
fish is hypotonic to its environment.
176. 130 Problem
Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States
taken together.
Reason (R): India is a Union of States.
177. 131 Problem
Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure
a temperature of - 60° C.
Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury.
178. Directions (Questions 132-134):
Read the following information to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D and E are five towns out of which two are hill stations and the rest are in plains.
Two towns, which are in plains, arc harbours. Four towns out of five are capitals and two are
industrial towns. Population of two towns is less than 5 lacs. It is 20 lacs of one town and
more than 50 lacs of two towns. Two towns are on the same latitudes and other two are on
the same longitudes. Latitudes and longitudes of both harbours are different and out of
these one is an industrial town. The population of both industrial towns is more than 50
lacs. The longitudes of one hill station and one of the industrial towns are same. The
latitudes and longitudes of the other hill station and other harbour are different. One
industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbour. None of the hill stations is an industrial
town. The hill station of which longitudes are same as that of a harbour, is a capital. B is a
hill station while the longitudes of A and Eare same. E is a harbour. The latitudes of D and C
are same and the population of D is 20 lacs. Both the harbours arc capitals and one of them
is an industrial town.
179. 132 Problem
Which of the following two towns are those whose population is less than 5 lacs?
a. B and C
b. D and A
c. A and B
d. A and C
180. 133 Problem
Which of the following is a harbour, a capital and an industrial town?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. E
181. 134 Problem
Which of the following towns have population more than 50 lacs?
a. B and E
b. A and D
c. C and E
d. C and D
182. Directions (Questions 135-137):
In each of the following number series, two terms have been put within brackets.
Mark your answer as
1. if the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong.
2. if both the bracketed terms are right.
3. if the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right.
4. if both the bracketed terms are wrong.
186. Directions (Questions 138-140):
Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S,
T, U, V and W are to he operated daily. On any one day. except for the first day of
a month, only three of the program sets must be ones that were operated on the
previous day.
The program operating must also satisfy the following conditions:
I. If program P is to be operated on a day, V cannot be operated on that day.
II. If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the programs to be operated
after Q.
III. If R is to b operated on a day. V must be one of the programs to be operated
after R.
IV. The last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U.
187. 138 Problem
Which of the following could be set of programs to be operated on the first day
of a month?
a. U, Q, S, T, W
b. V, Q, R, T, S ]
c. T, U, R. V. S
d. Q, S, R, V, U
188. 139 Problem
Which of the following is true of any day's valid program set operation?
a. Q cannot be operated at third place
b. P cannot be operated at third place
c. R cannot be operated at fourth place
d. T cannot be operated at third place
189. 140 Problem
If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be the
second program in that sequence?
a. S
b. Q
c. T
d. U
190. Directions (Questions 141-143):
Read the following information to answer these questions
For getting selected as a Marketing Manager in a company, the candidate must:
be a graduate with at least 40% marks.
have secured at least 40% marks in the written test.
not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10 October, 1997.
should have work experience of at least two years as an officer. However, if a candidate:
fulfils all other criteria except at (IV) above but
has a diploma in Marketing Management, his/ her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing.
VI. fulfils all other criteria except at (III) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three
years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing. Based on the above criteria and the
information given in each of the following questions, you have to take the decision with regard to each
case. You are not to assume anything. These cases are given to you as on 10 October, 1997.
Mark answer as
I. if the candidate is not to appointed
II. if the candidate is to be appointed
III. if the data given are not sufficient to take decision
IV. if to be referred to General Manager, Marketing
191. 141 Problem
Amit Khanna, born on 5 June, 1973, has done his post-graduation in Marketing
Management with first class. He has secured 50% marks in the written test. He
has been working in an organization as a Marketing Officer for the last four years.
192. 142 Problem
Rohit Varma has been working in an organization as Officer for the last ten years.
His date of birth is 17 February, 1964. He has secured 60% marks in the degree
examination and 40% marks in the writ-ten test.
193. 143 Problem
Manju Sharma is a first class graduate and has done a diploma in Marketing
Management. She has se-cured 50% marks in the written test. She was 23 years
old as on 5 September, 1996.
194. Directions (Questions 144-147):
Use the information given below to answer these questions.
After months of talent searching for an Administrative Assistant to the President of the
college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to five (A, B, C, D and E). It was
announced that the finalist would be chosen after holding a series of all-day group personal
interviews. The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure:
I. The interviews will be held once a week.
II. No more than 3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session.
III. Each candidate will appear at least once.
IV. If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additional interviews, no more than one
such applicant should be asked to appear the next week.
V. Because of a detail in the written application, it was agreed that whenever Candidate B
appears, A should also be present.
VI. Because of travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.
195. 144 Problem
At the first interview, the following candidates ap-pear: A, B and D. Which of the
following combina-tions can be called for the interview to be held the next
week?
a. CDE
b. BCD
c. ABE
d. ABC
196. 145 Problem
Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in
two successive weeks?
a. ABD; ABE
b. ABC; BDE
c. ADE; ABC
d. BDE; ACD
197. 146 Problem
If A, B and D appear at the interview and D is called for an additional interview
the following week, which two candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A
II. B
III. C
IV. E
a. I and III only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. III and IV only
198. 147 Problem
Which of the following correctly states the proce-dure followed by the search
committee?
I. After the second interview, all applicants have appeared at least once.
II. The Committee sees at least one applicant a second time.
III. If a third session is held it is possible for all applicants to appear at least
twice.
a. II only
b. I only
c. I and II only
d. III only
199. Directions (Questions 148-150):
Study the information given below to answer these questions: A certain city is served by six
subway lines, designated by the letters A, B and C and the numbers I,
2 and 3.
When it snows, morning service on the B line is delayed.
When it rains or snows, service on the A, 2 and 3
lines is delayed both morning and afternoon.
When the temperature drops below 30° F, afternoon service is cancelled on either the A
line or the 3 line, but not both.
When the temperature rises above 90° F, afternoon service is cancelled on cither the C line
or the 3 line, but not both.
When service on the A line is delayed or cancel led, service on the C line, which connects
with the A line, is delayed.
When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line, which connects with the 3
line, is delayed.
200. 148 Problem
On January 10. with the temperature at 15° F, it snows all days. On how many lines
will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
201. 149 Problem
On August 15, with the temperature at 97O F, it begins to rain at 1 p.m.. What is
the minimum num-ber of lines on which service will be affected?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
202. 150 Problem
On which of the following occasions would service on the greatest number of
lines be disrupted?
a. A snowy morning with the temperature at 45° F
b. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45° F
c. A rainy morning with the temperature at 45° F
d. A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 20° F
203. Directions (Questions 151-152):
Use the statement given to answer these questions.
All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win, eat a well-
balanced diet; therefore, all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet arc
bad athletes.
204. 151 Problem
If assumptions of the agreement above are true, then which of the following
statements must be true?
a. No athlete who docs not cat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
b. No bad athlete wants to win.
c. Every athlete who cats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
d. All athletes who want to win are good athletes.
205. 152 Problem
Which of the following, if true, would refute the assumptions of the argument
above?
a. Bob, the accountant, eats a well-balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete.
b. Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete.
c. All the players on the Burros baseball team eat a well- balanced diet.
d. Cindy, the basketball star, does not eat a wwll- balanced diet, but she is a
good athlete.
207. 153 Problem
The workers union of GrainCorp, a grain-process-ing plant, is attempting to obtain a pay
raise from GrainCorp management. To pressure GrainCorp management into accepting the
union's proposal, the president of the union has proposed a boycott against SequareMart
food stores, which arc owned by MegaFood, the parent company of GrainCrop.
The answer to which of the following questions is LEAST directly relevant to the union
president's consideration of whether a boycott of Square Mart will lead to acceptance of
their pay rate proposal?
a. Are the staple food products purchased by consumers at Square Mart stores read'ly
available at other stores not owned by MegaFood?
b. Would the loss of business at Square Mart stores materially affect MegaFood?
c. How many Square Marts are within the region of the GrainCorp plant?
d. Is MegaFood the only corporation that operates both grain-processing plants and food
stores?
208. 154 Problem
The owner of a four-story commercial building dis-covered termites in the building's first
and second floors and called an exterminator. The extermina-tor pumped gas into the walls
on both the first and second floors. Due to the exterminator's work, the termites on those
floors were killed quickly.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously un-dermines the validity of the explanation
for the speed with which the termites were killed?
a. Even though the exterminator did not pump gas into the walls of the fourth storey, the
termites there died as quickly as they did on the first and second storeys.
b. The third floor had no termite infestation.
c. The speed at which termites are killed increases as the concentration of an
exterminator's gas increases.
d. The speed with which the exterminator's gas kills termites drops off sharply as the gas
dissipates throughout the building's walls.
209. 155 Problem
A chemical company recently introduced a new type of foam spray that it claims will reduce
the rate of erosion from the walls of road cuts. A study by the company showed that the
rate of erosion was low on a road cut where the foam was ap-plied.
Which of the following, if true, would most seri-ously weaken the company's conclusion?
a. Because the foam itself weathers, the foam would have to be reapplied every four years
in order to maintain protection against erosion.
b. Road cuts similar to the one studied typically show low rates of erosion without the
foam.
c. Studies by the company that produces the material are sometimes unreliable because
of conflicts of interest.
d. The rate of erosion from the road cut in the study was greater than expected based on
computer simulation models.
210. 156 Problem
The Laysan Rail, an insectivore bird once present on several of the Hawaiian Islands, can no
longer be found and is thought to be extinct. Scientists origi-nally thought that a decrease in
the amount of ground vegetation available for nesting was responsible for the decline of the
bird. However, they now believe that increased competition for food was ultimately
responsible for the Laysn Rail's inability to survive.
Which of the following would best help to account for the change in the accepted
explanation for the Laysan Rail's extinction?
a. When' attempts were made io relocate the Laysan Rail to other islands, the birds lost
the geographical cues that they relied on for finding mating sites.
b. The vegetation on the Laysan Rail's home island was decimated when rabbits were
introduced to the island in the 1910s.
c. The Laysan Rail builds nests under dense ground cover to protect the eggs.
d. An increase in the use of pesticides resulted in a decrease in the numbers of flies and
moths present in the Laysan Rail's territory.
211. 157 Problem
Retail clothing stores should hold "one-day only" sales to clear merchandise that has been
returned , because it is defective in some way. The stores should sell this merchandise for
up to 70 percent less than the original retail price. Stores will find these sales to be an
effective way of getting rid of defective merchandise as long as they inform cus-tomers that
the discounted merchandise is non-re-turnable.
The author assumes which of the following about the "one day only" sale merchandise in
predicting the effectiveness of these sales?
a. The rate of returns when merchandise is new makes these "one-day only" sales key to a
store's profitability.
b. The defects in the merchandise arc not so significant that customers will be unwilling to
pay even the sale price.
c. Too few shoppers purchase merchandise at full retail price.
d. If these sales become popular, stores will have to have them more often.
212. 158 Problem
"Some men are certainly intelligent, others arc cer-tainly not intelligent, but of
intermediate men, we should say, intelligent'? Yes, I think, so or no, I shouldn't be
inclined to call him intelligent.
Which of the following most accurately reflects the intention of the writer of the
above?
a. Every empirical concept has a degree of vagueness.
b. To call men intelligent who are not strikingly so must be to use the concept
with undue imprecision.
c. Calling someone intelligent or not depends upon one's whim.
d. There is no need to be as indecisive as the writer of the above.
213. 159 Problem
A highly cohesive work group is a prerequisite for high team performance. Sociologists point
that the association between ground cohesion and success is owing to the support
individual team members give to one another and their acceptance of the group's goals and
activities. Each of the following, if true, either provides sup-port for or cannot weaken the
sociologists' assump-tion about the relationship between cohesion and success EXCEPT.
a. University researchers found that there was a significant correlation between team
productivity and the extent to which team members understood and complied with the
group's objectives.
b. A group of Japanese researchers found that successful work teams were headed by
dominant leaders.
c. American researchers found that successful team members tended to rate their fellow
members more favourable.
d. Industrial Psychologists in UK found that work groups who tended to participate in after
hours social activities.
214. 160 Problem
Many business offices are located in buildings hav-ing two to eight floors. If a
building has more than three floors, it has a lift. If the statements above are true,
which of the following must also be true?
a. Seventh floors have lifts.
b. Second floors do not have lifts.
c. Only floors above the third floors have lifts.
d. All floors may be reached by lifts.
216. 161 Problem
The currency of South Africa is
a. Guilder
b. Pound
c. Rand
d. Shekel
217. 162 Problem
Which country launched its second manned space mission recently?
a. China
b. India
c. Korea
d. Singapore
218. 163 Problem
Aquaguard water purification systems are products from
a. Kcnstar
b. Voltas
c. Bluestar
d. None of these
219. 164 Problem
The ad-line 'Good people to bank with' is associ-ated with which bank?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Citibank
d. Union Bank of India
220. 165 Problem
Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?
a. Denmark
b. USA
c. Sweden
d. Finland
221. 166 Problem
The famous book "Two Lives" has been written by
a. Anurag Mathur
b. ArundhatiRoy
c. Vikram Seth
d. Shiv Khera
222. 167 Problem
'Fair and Lovely' range of products was launched by
a. Procter and Gamble
b. Lakme
c. Hindustan Lever
d. Godrej
223. 168 Problem
MTNL provides which one of the following quality services?
a. Garuda
b. Trump
c. Dolphin
d. All the above
224. 169 Problem
"Pantene" shampoo belongs to which of the fol-lowing companies?
a. Procter & Gamble
b. Colgate & Palmolive
c. Hindustan Lever
d. Rev Ion
225. 170 Problem
"Data One" broadband services have been launched by which organisation?
a. BSNL
b. MTNL
c. Tata Walky
d. Reliance India Mobile
226. 171 Problem
National Defiance Academy is located by
a. Wellington
b. Khadakvasla
c. Dchradun
d. Chennai
227. 172 Problem
'Real' Juices are products of which company?
a. Nestle
b. Dabur
c. ITC
d. None of these
228. 173 Problem
Hindustan Machine Tools is a
a. Private Sector Company
b. Joint Sector Company
c. Public sector Company
d. None of these
229. 174 Problem
Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising cam-paign of which bank?
a. Bank of Baroda
b. Bank of India
c. HSBC
d. HDFC
230. 175 Problem
What does JVC- a Japanese Electronic giant - stand for?
a. Japan Image Company
b. Japanese Venture Corporation
c. Japan Victor Company
d. None of these
231. 176 Problem
Deflation is
a. Deficit Budget
b. Reduction in taxation
c. The rate at which the general level rises
d. Opposite of Inflation
232. 177 Problem
Which of the following is true about Ted Turner?
a. He is founder of CNN
b. I le is partner in Microsoft Corporation
c. He is founder of Newsweek
d. He is founder of the Reader's Digest
233. 178 Problem
'Georgia Gold' brand of hot or cold beverages be-longs to which company?
a. Pepsi
b. Nestle
c. HLL
d. Coca-Cola
234. 179 Problem
Apple Computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?
a. Jack Welsch
b. Bill Gates
c. Steve Jobs
d. None of these
235. 180 Problem
Procter & Gamble took over which famous brand recently?
a. Revlon
b. Vicks
c. Gillette
d. None of these
236. 181 Problem
Which of the following is not an advertising agency?
a. SergioTachini
b. Saatchi & Saatchi
c. Trikaya grey
d. Clarion Bates
237. 182 Problem
Sellers market denotes a situation where
a. demand exceeds supply
b. supply exceeds demand
c. demand and supply are evenly balanced
d. None of the above
238. 183 Problem
Which of the following companies is also present in other sectors like FMCG,
Electrical equipment, apart from IT?
a. Polaris
b. Infosys
c. Wipro
d. Patni Computers
239. 184 Problem
Which Indian businessman brought back the 'Sword of Tipu Sultan' to India?
a. Kumarmanglam Birla
b. RatanTata
c. NaveenJindal
d. VijayMallya
240. 185 Problem
Which among the following states was not under the British rule?
a. Goa
b. Tamil Nadu
c. J & K
d. None of these
241. 186 Problem
The car "Nexia" belongs to which one of the fol-lowing companies?
a. Honda
b. Daewoo
c. General Motors
d. Fiat
242. 187 Problem
Which one of the following countries has not par-ticipated in the formation of
the Euro currency?
a. France
b. Spain
c. Italy
d. Sweden
243. 188 Problem
'Octavia' brand belongs to which car manufacturer?
a. BMW
b. Skoda
c. Hyundai
d. None of these
244. 189 Problem
A new firm "AVENTIS" has been created by the merger of which of the following
two companies?
a. Rhone Poulec & Hoechst
b. Ciba & Sandoz
c. Centurion Bank & Twentieth Century Finance
d. Reuters & Dow Jones
245. 190 Problem
Where are the headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
a. Singapore
b. New Delhi
c. Manila
d. Mumbai
246. 191 Problem
Which country is the largest importer of gold?
a. China
b. USA
c. Canada
d. None of these
247. 192 Problem
Which is the first public sector unit in India to be d is invested?
a. CMC Ltd.
b. Modern Food Industries
c. BALCO
d. Hindustan Zinc Ltd
248. 193 Problem
Which is not a private Indian Bank?
a. UCO Bank
b. ICICI
c. HDFC
d. IDBI
249. 194 Problem
Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known as Minicoy Islands?
a. Northern
b. Eastern
c. Southern
d. Western
250. 195 Problem
Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Orissa
251. 196 Problem
G-15 is
a. An organisation of the developed countries of the world
b. An organisation of the developing countries of the world.
c. An organisation of the developed countries of Europe
d. An organisation of developing countries of Asia.
252. 197 Problem
The birth-rate measures the number of births dur-ing a year per
a. 100 of population
b. 1,000 of population
c. 10,000 of population
d. 1.00,000 of population
253. 198 Problem
Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the In-dian Constitution in
a. 1971
b. 1972
c. 1975
d. 1976
254. 199 Problem
In India, to be recognized as a national party, a party must secure at least
a. 10% of the valid votes in four or more States
b. 4% of the valid votes in four or more States
c. 15% of the valid votes in two States
d. 25% of the valid votes in one State.
255. 200 Problem
In which year were the first general elections held in India?
a. 1947-48
b. 1948-49
c. 1950-51
d. 1951-52