Liberty Study Guide and Answers Homeworksimple.com_Part7.pdf

BIBL 104 Quiz 3 The Old Testament Books of Wisdom and Poetry
Covers the Learn material from Module 3: Week 3.
1. “Pride comes before destruction, and an arrogant spirit before a fall.” (Prov. 16:18) is an example
of
2. are songs of praise that focus on the Lord’s eternal attributes and His great acts in creation and
history.
3. The _____________ are prayers of extreme emotion and anger calling on God to bring severe
judgment on the enemies of God and the psalmist.
4. According to our textbook, allegorical interpretations of the Song of Songs are correct since they
are based on careful exegesis of the text in the Song of Songs.
5. In his response to Job, God appeals to creation as a demonstration of his unfathomable wisdom.
6. In a general sense the proverbs can be grouped into two major forms. One of these forms is
7. “Genuine righteousness leads to life, but pursuing evil leads to death.” (Prov. 11:19) is an
example of
8. “Good news from a distant land is like cold water to a parched throat.” (Prov. 25:25) is an
example of
9. According to our textbook, the expression “_______________” refers to the activities of man as
observed and experienced from a human perspective.
10. Job’s friends assume he must have done something terribly wrong, unjust, or unwise to
experience such an incredible tragedy.
11. In the __________________, the psalmist confesses his sin and prays for the Lord’s forgiveness
and restoration.
12. According to our textbook, the _____________________ is a reoccurring theme or motif found
throughout the book of Ecclesiastes.
13. The title “Song of Songs” can literally be translated from the Hebrew “The Greatest Song of
Solomon.”
14. The Proverbs are wise sayings that express deep truths in capsule form.
15. Bildad, one of Job’s three friends, suggests that God may use suffering as a means to keep men
from sin, to chastise, and to maintain a healthy degree of reverence before the Almighty.
16. Proverbs are written in such a simple way that they produce reflection within the mind of the
reader.
17. Job’s friends respond to his suffering by saying, “Why don’t you curse God and die?”
18. According to our textbook, _____________________ is a reoccurring theme or motif found
19. Proverbs are general truths, not specific promises or guarantees from God.
20. “The one who conceals hatred has lying lips, and whoever spreads slander is a fool.” (Prov.
10:18) is an example of
21. In the second cosmic test in the book of Job, the Lord allows Satan to take Job’s health, but he
must preserve Job’s life.
22. The focus of the Proverbs is heavenly rather than earthly.
23. The list of individuals who composed material in the Psalms includes Saul.
24. While the time of writing for the book of Job is uncertain, internal evidence points to a time before
the Mosaic law.
25. are prayers expressing thanks to God for specific answers to prayer or for deliverance from
danger.
26. The ____________________ are expressions of trust in the Lord and praise to the Lord for the
security He provides to those who trust in Him.
27. In the book of Job the Lord presents his servant Job as a model of righteousness before
29. Job states his faith in the resurrection when he says: “I know that my redeemer
..And after my skin has been destroyed, yet in my flesh I will see God.”

30. The ______________ are songs of praise the people sang as they made pilgrimage to
Jerusalem.
31. Job’s three friends were Eliphaz, Bildad, and Zophar.
32. In a general sense the proverbs can be grouped into two major forms. One of these forms is
33. The Hebrew word hevel, literally means
34. Job is convinced that if he could only have the opportunity to present his case to God, then God
would realize he is judging the wrong man, and Job would be proclaimed innocent.
35. According to our textbook, perhaps the greatest benefit the believer can gain by studying the
Song of Songs is the reminder that love is a gift from God and should be enjoyed as a gift.
36. According to our textbook, the value of _______________ is a reoccurring theme or motif found
37. According to our textbook, _________________ is one of the more popular topics in the book of
Proverbs.
38. “Train up a child in the way he should go, and when he is old he will not depart from it” (Prov.
22:6). This wisdom holds true as a general rule, not an absolute promise.
39. Proverbs concentrates primarily on practical issues rather than focusing on theological issues.
40. Most of the book of Proverbs is attributed to ______________.
41. The key literary characteristic within the individual proverb is
42. Job’s responds to God in faith knowing it is enough that God is in control.
Proverbs.
44. are prayers that celebrate the special relationship between the Lord and the house of the Davidic
king.
Proverbs.
46. In Proverbs child-rearing is a family affair but discipline begins with the individual.
47. The book of Job concludes with God prospering Job once again and blessing him with twice the
wealth.
48. The __________ focus on the Lord’s kingdom rule over His creation.
49. often teach practical lessons about everyday living.
BIBL 104 Quiz 4 The Old Testament Books of Prophecy
1. The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
2. In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
3. Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a
rebellious daughter.
4. Habakkuk’s second question was:
5. Jonah is scandalized that the Lord would show the same grace he has shown to Israel to the
people of Nineveh.
6. Ezekiel also delivered a series of oracles against Egypt.
7. Micah was a prophet in Judah and a contemporary of the prophet
8. The moral failure of Judah’s leadership had little impact on the spiritual corruption of the nation.
However, the same could not be said for Judah’s priests.
9. Obadiah announced that God would judge ____________ because of their participation with the
southern kingdom of Judah’s enemies in the plundering of Jerusalem.
10. The book of Nahum is a message against _____________.
11. Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ conarmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew
the people of Israel.

12. The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he
is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
13. According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the
same to them.
14. According to our textbook, the overall theme of Daniel is God’s sovereignty over the people of
Israel and the nations of the world.
15. The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is noted for peace without end.
16. One poem in Lamentations portrays Jerusalem as a grieving widow mourning her
17. The book of Jonah is a two-part story. The arst part of the book is about God’s mercy to His
disobedient prophet. The second part of the book is about God’s mercy to the wicked people of
Nineveh.
18. The use of the title “Holy One of Israel” appears equally in both “halves” of the book of Isaiah.
This unifying element argues for Isaiah’s authorship of the whole book.
19. Micah likened the greed and the disregard of Israel’s leaders for the poor to cannibals that
chopped the people up and made them into stew.
20. Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning
Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
21. Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather
than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
22. Zephaniah highlights the judgment of God by detailing how God will reverse his work of creation
and destroy all living things.
23. _________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
24. Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well
all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
25. Judgment, however, was not the anal word for Judah or the nations. In the last days, the Lord
would purify the speech of all peoples so they might worship and serve Him.
26. Haggai in tandem with ______________ challenged the postexilic community to resume the
work of rebuilding the temple.
27. Ezekiel was transported into exile as part of the first Babylonian deportation.
28. Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning
Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
29. Haggai encouraged some of the older people who still remembered the glorious first temple and
felt like giving up when they considered the inferiority of the new temple.
30. Daniel and his three friends were given Babylonian names in order to acclimate them to
Babylonian life and culture.
31. In Haggai’s anal message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of
Judah and a member of the house of David.
32. One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the
personification of the city of Jerusalem.
33. The King of Babylon has a dream about four empires that is only successfully interpreted by
Daniel.
34. The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to
include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
35. Zephaniah was of royal descent, the great-great grandson of King Hezekiah.
36. Rather than rejoicing in his successful preaching mission and the salvation of the Ninevites,
Jonah was angered that the Lord spared the city.
37. Daniel and his three friends were not able to keep their kosher diet while serving the king.
38. Eventually, King Nebuchadnezzar would go temporarily insane and behave in an animal-like
manner.
39. Malachi prophesied in the postexilic period before the rebuilding of the temple and the
reinstitution of the sacrifices and rituals associated with the temple.
40. The book of Isaiah opens with seven sermons that serve as a thematic introduction to the book.
41. Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that
“They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)

42. According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which
means chêsêd in Hebrew.
43. Hosea’s ministry began at a time of great economic prosperity for Israel, but that rapidly
disintegrated into one of national catastrophe by the end of his ministry.
44. In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day
of the Lord to restore His people.
45. In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the healer of the nations.
46. ______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
47. The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the
48. The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the
surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
49. Ezekiel delivered an extensive message of judgment against Tyre, the capital of Phoenicia.
50. The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identiaes
___________ as the author of the book.

EDUC 665 Quiz 5,6,7,8
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EDUC 665 Quiz 5 Student Affairs Models
1. According to the author, student’s do not detect the subtleties in various student affairs
approaches, and instead see the entire campus as a:
2. The primary distinction between the cocurricular model and the extracurricular model is:
3. Which Student Affairs model approaches student as customers?
4. Which Student Affairs model could be considered the most resource-thirsty?
5. Which Student Affairs model was partially derived from the same theorist that founded Social
Learning Theory?
6. According to the text, what characteristics are important to cultivate when switching to, or adding
a Student Affairs model?
7. An institution’s choice of Student Affairs models is heavily driven by:
8. What is a primary benefit of the “Functional Silos” model?
9. Approximately what percent of senior Student Affairs officers have a terminal or professional
degree?
10. Which of the following service entities is not commonly organized under Enrollment
Management?
EDUC 665 Quiz 6 Cross-functional Student Support Partnerships
1. Epistemologically-focused models, by definition, consider the: (note: internet research is allowed)
2. Which of the following is a reason given in the text for Student Affairs/Academic Affairs
partnerships failing?
3. The Boyer Partnership Assessment Project utilized which research approach?
4. Which of the following was identified by the BPAP as a “good practice” for partnership programs?
5. Which of the following was not identified by the BPAP as a “good practice” for partnership
programs?
6. The author states that, in many ways, effective Student Affairs/Academic Affairs partnerships are
about:
7. Which of the following was not identified as a finding of the “Women’s Ways of Knowing” study?
8. According to the author, rich learning experiences provide students with better cognitive:
9. Who is credited with the model of intercultural sensitivity?
10. Who proposed a multidimensional framework of intercultural maturity that includes cognitive,
intrapersonal, and interpersonal dimensions across three developmental levels?
EDUC 665 Quiz 7 Research-driven Student Support Models
1. “a planned activity with individuals or student groups that is theoretical based and has as its
intention the promotion of personal development and learning” is the definition of what?
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a high impact practice?
3. What does the author identify as a potential protagonist?

4. According to the author, diversity experiences are always associated with:
5. A common PTP model features how many steps?
6. What object is used as a 3D representation for identifying and implementing appropriate,
purposeful delivery strategies?
7. Morrill, Oetting, & Hurst’s (1974) 3D model can assist practitioners in aligning all but which
element?
8. Astin’s I-E-O model referred to:
9. According to the author, a common pitfall related to ethical and professional standards is:
10. According to the author, an emerging role of Student Affairs professionals is that of:
EDUC 665 Quiz 8 Modern Student Engagement
1. Which of the following does the author not discuss as a primary type of social media to consider
in Student Affairs practice?
2. In summary of chapter 20, the author calls for institutions to:
3. Someone being more likely to say something in an online setting than they would in an in-person
interaction is referred to as:
4. The “Student Learning Imperative” encouraged student affairs educators to:
5. Which marque studies showcased the importance of relationships and institutional fit?
6. According to the text, who is or is not responsible for what critical activity may provide insight into
an organization’s values and culture?
7. According to the author, new professionals in Student Affairs should have a healthy skepticism
about:
8. A current societal trend regarding higher education is a debate over the:
9. According to the text, between 2008 and 2015 college students became:
10. According to the text, the right conditions for Student Affairs/Academic Affairs collaboration do
not include:

EDAS 640 Quiz Midterm Final
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EDAS 640 Midterm
EDAS 640 Final
The candidate will complete a midterm and final quiz in this course. Each quiz will be open-book/open-
notes, contain 5–6 essay questions, and have a 2-hour and 45-minute time limit.
EDAS 640 Quiz Final

EDAS 640 School Improvement Final
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EDAS 640 School Improvement Plan: Final Canvas and LiveText Submission Assignment
The candidate will revise Parts A, B, C, D, and E, combine them into one School Improvement Plan
assignment, and submit their paper in Canvas and LiveText.

EDAS 640 School Improvement D and E
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EDAS 640 School Improvement Plan: Parts D & E – Implementation Plan Assignment
The candidate will complete an Implementation Plan that covers resource management,
implementation, and monitoring progress. A template will be provided for Part E.

EDAS 640 School Improvement B and C
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EDAS 640 School Improvement Plan: Parts B & C – Data Analysis and Goals Assignment
The candidate will gather and analyze multiple types of school data and then list 3–5 SMART goals for
school improvement. The candidate will explain how each of the 3-5 SMART goals align with the
school’s vision and how the SMART goals are communicated to all stakeholders

EDAS 640 School Improvement A
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School Improvement Plan: Part A – Vision Evaluation, Development, and Revision Assignment
The candidate will report, evaluate, review, and revise a school’s or district’s vision/purpose statement.
This must be between 300–500 words.

EDUC 665 Quiz 1,2,3,4
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EDUC 665 Quiz 1,2,3,4
Updated 2023
EDUC 665 Quiz 1 Support Service Foundations
1. According to the author, American Higher Education institutions aim to “invoke a sense of
continuity and heritage” in order to:
2. 1945-1970 is referred to as the “Golden Age” in higher education due to:
3. According to the author, institutions often increase spending in an attempt to:
4. The author credits the emergence of the for-profit institution to all of the following except:
5. The term “Student Affairs” was first used to describe the student service profession in what era?
6. Among other outcomes, the Buckley Amendment gave more power to:
7. According to the author, the Serviceman’s Readjustment Act of 1944 had all but which of the
following unintended outcomes?
8. What word best describes the social perception related to Higher Education noted in the late
1800’s?
9. What institutional distinction highlighted the “German model” in the late 1800’s?
10. Opportunities for women to attend college increased exponentially after which historical event?
EDUC 665 Quiz 2 Theoretical Frameworks for Student Support
1. According to the author, Student Affairs theories must evolve to accomodate:
2. Developmental theories commonly describe development as occurring along a path of:
3. According to the author, dissonance is required for:
4. Applying theory to professional practice requires practice because:
5. For development to occur, Sanford (1966) suggested that students need a balance of:
6. What term do the authors use to describe “a conceptual lens that can be used to make sense of
the nature and impact of organizational events on an outcome?”
7. Which Campus Environment “perspective” places the most responsibility on the institution for
creating an environment conducive to student success?
8. Which of the following is not listed as a critical aspect of the “campus environment in college”?
9. Which of Strange and Banning’s organizational environment “dimensions” are likely to have the
biggest impact on student engagement?
10. The assertion that “different people can experience the same environment in disparate ways” is
a part of the authors larger charge to:
EDUC 665 Quiz 3 Quiz: Diversity, Inclusion, and the Campus Environment
1. Which of the following is not a benefit of increased student diversity?
2. Multicultural competence is espoused as a transformational framework to :
3. According to the MCIM, another word for second-order change is:
4. The creation of an elective course focusing on diversity & inclusion would most accurately fall
under which section of the MCIM?

5. The creation of a campus-wide student affairs curriculum focusing on multicultural awareness
would most accurately fall under which section of the MCIM?
6. Which of the following is not one of Smith’s (2009) dimensions of campus diversity?
7. Which student group is noted to be more likely to perceive campus environments as
exclusionary and unwelcoming?
8. Which of the following strategies & competencies were not endorsed by the author for navigating
environmentally controversial situations?
9. According to the author, new students entering college show a disparity between their:
10. Chapter five can be generalized as a focus on managing student’s:
EDUC 665 Quiz 4 Student Engagement
1. Why does student retention require a multi-disciplinary theoretical approach?
2. Tinto’s interactionalist model based on an acculturation-assimilation perspective is most
accurately summarized by which common phrase?
3. Which of the following is not a practice born out of the DEEP project?
4. According to Tinto’s 1975 theory, who is most responsible for engagement?
5. Why does the author suggest that retention theorists will likely view the issue of student
experience through a “wide-angled lens” in the future?
6. Which retention theorist is credited with developing Student Involvement Theory?
7. An institutional investment in expanding campus lab space and external internship opportunities
falls most closely in alignment with which theory?
8. According to chapter 15 of the text, which of the following is a primary reason retention and
completion rates so highly valued by institutions?
9. The makeup of an institution’s environment has the greatest direct impact on:
10. The Ecological model (Chapter 14) suggests that all but which of the following help shape the
campus environment?

JURI 550 Quizzes 1,2,3,4
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JURI 550 Quizzes Liberty Updated for 2023
JURI 550 Quiz 1 Introduction to Property Personal Property
1. When an adverse possessor first openly takes possession of chattel, this act has which of the
following legal consequences in the majority of states?
2. The capture rule relates to how the common law dealt with …
3. Which of the following groups of factors is the legally accepted guide for courts to analyze
whether a finder has obtained rights in found property?
4. A non-owner of personal property can lawfully possess an item of personal property. Which of
the following lists most completely identifies the types of a non-owner’s possession that are
lawful?
5. If we assume that a spam email has been held by a court to be a trespass to chattels, then which
of the following will most likely not be considered to be a trespass to chattels?
6. Most states require a bailee to exercise which of the following standards of care?
7. Wild animals are rarely the subject of litigation in modern times. The utility of understanding the
law regarding wild animals is:
8. Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the bundle of property rights?
9. The doctrine of adverse possession of personal property is problematic due to the chattel’s
portability and the likelihood that the possessor’s use of the chattel may not give notice to the
owner. The law in a few states seeks to reduce or eliminate these problems by which of the
following?
10. Government now regulates hunting and fishing. As a result, governmental regulation is not
consistent with the capture rule.
11. Arden lost her gold wedding ring and Mrs. Boyd found it. Later, Mrs. Boyd moved the ring from
her coat pocket to her purse, which had a hole in it. Boyd lost the ring and it was found by Mr.
Campbell. Which statement most accurately describes the court’s likely ruling in a lawsuit by
Boyd against Campbell?
12. Which of the following explains why a bona fide purchaser of an item of personal property will
prevail over the true owner in certain transactions?
13. In a case where a person seeks a judgment awarding him/her with ownership of another’s
personal property, which of the following does not help the person’s case:
14. The common law rule does not protect bona fide purchasers because a seller cannot pass on a
better title to personal property than what he/she has at the time of the transaction between the
seller and the bona fide purchaser. Is this true or false?
15. The Uniform Commercial Code provides protection for bona fide purchasers under certain
circumstances. Is this true or false?
16. The least accurate definition of the traditional categories of found property is which of the
following?
17. The decision in the Moore v. U.C. Regents case about the dilemma in property law concerning
body tissue is expressed in which of the following statements?
18. Which of the following doctrines favors the person who is a diligent worker?
19. Custom proved to be critical to the judicial decision in which of the following cases regarding the
ownership of wild animals?
20. The key take-away rule from the Pierson v. Post case is most accurately stated in which of the
following statements?
21. Bailment is the lawful possession of real property. True or false?
22. Even if it is proven that the original owner of an item of personal property abandoned the
property, he nonetheless will win a court judgment against the finder of the property because he

was the original owner. Is this true or false?
23. Property rights are often referred to as the metaphorical bundle of sticks, as Chapter 1 of the text
points out. If one of the sticks is the right to destroy the property that a person owns, which of the
following statements is the most accurate?
24. Which of the following is accurate regarding accession rules?
25. The most complete list of the common law traditional categories of found property is which of the
following?
JURI 550 Quiz 2 Landlord-Tenant Law
1. Since leases are a conveyance of real property, the lease agreement must be in writing because
the Statute of Frauds applies to all such conveyances.
2. One of the following so-called landlord-tenant relationships has the least characteristics of a
tenancy. Which one?
3. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about a commercial tenant’s transfer of his
leasehold interest?
4. With regard to possession of leased premises, the majority of states require which of the
following?
5. A written residential lease must expressly state the implied warranty of habitability to be
enforceable. True or False?
6. Summary eviction proceedings have been upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court. The additional
significant points of the Court’s holding—besides the issues related to summary eviction, self-
help, and bonds— include:
7. A residential tenant can abandon the rented dwelling at the time of his choosing even if he owes
further obligations to the landlord. True or false?
8. Before a tenant can make a claim of constructive eviction or breach of the implied warranty of
habitability, the tenant must:
9. Given the revolution in landlord-tenant law over the past century, a tenant is afforded greater
protection under case law and statutes. Thus, a landlord must obtain the tenant’s consent—
which cannot be unreasonably withheld—before the landlord conveys his title to the premises to
a buyer.
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
11. The implied warranty of habitability provides a range of remedy options for a tenant. The
remedies include:
12. Which true tenancy does not require notice of termination?
13. As a result of the significant revolution in landlord-tenant law, which of the following is the most
accurate statement of what is permissible in most states?
14. The majority of courts hold the landlord who is in the business of renting premises to residential
tenants strictly liable for latent defects that existed at the formation of the tenancy and which
resulted in injury to the tenant.
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
16. The characteristics of the common law tenancy at will leasehold interest are best described by
which of the following statements?
17. Discrimination in the renting or selling of a residential dwelling is prohibited in which of the
following circumstances?
18. Under modern law, residential tenants are provided greater protection regarding the payment of
rent. This is so, because of which concept below?
19. The contract law concept of mitigation applies to which of the following circumstances?
20. Which of the following statements is the most accurate after the modern revolution in residential
landlord-tenant law?
21. The characteristics of a periodic tenancy leasehold interest are best described by which of the
following statements?
22. A tenancy at sufferance becomes a leasehold interest when a holdover tenant and the landlord
agree to a renewal of their expired tenancy.

23. Landlord Larsen owned an office building and Tilley was a tenant. The private trash company
hired by Larsen placed the office building’s large trash dumpsters in the parking spaces allotted
to tenant Tilley. The trash company repeatedly did this two to three days a week, for six months.
In the second month Tilley sent Larsen a letter that complained about the dumpsters and insisted
that Larsen make the parking spaces available to Tilley’s customers. When the spaces remained
unavailable for another month after the letter, Tilley moved to a new location. A court will likely
conclude …
24. The most important change in the development of landlord-tenant law in the modern era has
been:
25. The Civil Rights Act of 1968 and the Civil Rights Act of 1866 are identical with regard to the
scope of prohibition of racial discrimination?
JURI 550 Quiz 3 Property Purchase Transaction
1. “Closing the transaction” is the last stage of a purchase-sale transaction. As far as the buyer is
concerned, the most important document at closing is the deed. A buyer would prefer:
2. After a buyer and seller sign a real estate purchase-sale contract it is often the case that one of
the parties wants to back out of the contract. The other party most likely will sue for the remedy
of specific performance. Which of the following is incorrect regarding specific performance?
3. A recorded quitclaim deed is considered to put would-be purchasers on inquiry notice by most
jurisdictions under the modern approach. True or false?
4. Regarding the modern view about disclosures of the condition of the property that is the subject
of the sale contract, which of the following is inaccurate?
5. Title insurance is the dominant method of title protection in the United States. Which of the
following statements accurately describes the protection afforded by title insurance?
6. From the perspective of the borrower, the benefit of a mortgage in the event of the borrower’s
default on the loan is:
7. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, the common
law rule will impose the risk of property damage or loss on the buyer unless the purchase-sale
contract states otherwise. This is known as:
8. Registration of title is essential to maintain a clear chain of title ownership and to protect the
most recent owner who just closed on the purchase of real property. A small minority of states
organizes each real property’s chain of title and encumbrances by using which of the following
systems:
9. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, the seller will
be required to disclose the condition of the property in most transactions. In most states the
seller will be held to which disclosure standard?
10. A vendee can negotiate a land installment contract to protect him from some of the vendor’s
preferred terms. However, a vendee must rely on courts in some jurisdictions to interpret which
of the following contract terms to protect him?
11. A title insurance policy provides the following benefits to the insured person, except:
12. At what point does a deed become effective? Which of the following lists identifies the minimal
set of elements for the deed to be effective?
13. Under the common law, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
14. As the buyer and seller are “preparing for the closing”, they will be most concerned with:
15. At the closing of the transaction, the purpose of recording the deed is:
16. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, both the buyer
and seller are interested in determining as soon as possible whether the buyer can purchase the
property with cash or finance the purchase with a loan. If the buyer will finance the purchase, the
documents that are essential for the buyer to satisfy the purchase-sale contract and to close the
transaction are:
17. From the perspective of the lender, the benefit of a mortgage is that the lender is contractually
entitled to pursue a judicial foreclosure or a non- judicial foreclosure if the borrower defaults on
the loan.

18. In most modern transactions involving the sale of real property, which combination of title
covenants is the most likely to be used as the bases of a claim by the grantee of a warranty deed
against his grantor?
19. The typical sales contract will contain a condition precedent regarding the quality of title that
seller will transfer to buyer. What is this contingency clause in the contract intended to do?
20. A contract for the sale of real estate is enforceable in which of the following situations:
21. “Negotiating the contract” follows the “Locating the Buyer” stage in a real property purchase-sale
transaction. The general rule is that the purchase-sale contract must include:
22. In the event that the purchase-sale contract does not include a provision regarding the quality of
title, courts will imply the condition of marketable title, which is:
23. Among the four basic stages of a real property purchase-sale transaction, the starting point is
“locating the buyer”. Which of the following documents can assist the seller in locating a buyer?
24. A seller of real estate has the option to transfer title to the subject property to the buyer using one
of the types of deeds described below. Which of the following statements is accurate?
25. When a buyer-borrower executes the promissory note and the mortgage instrument for a
$100,000 loan, most courts will make which of the following conclusions about the formation of
the loan agreement?
JURI 550 Quiz 4 Government Land Use Regulation
1. The central rule of Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty declares that:
2. A local government’s economic redevelopment plan is constitutionally valid, unless:
3. A governmental action that regulates land use can result in which of the following court
judgments?
4. Which of the following statements is true?
5. Newly enacted comprehensive zoning creates a problem for many landowners whose pre-
existing uses and structures are now unlawful. Landowners can solve the problem by:
6. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, the Dolan v. City of Tigard rule stands for:
7. A local government is justified in its disapproval of a landowner’s application for an area variance
on which basis stated below?
8. If zoning is valid as a matter of federal constitutional law, it is so because:
9. In Lucas v. South Carolina Coastal Council, the U.S. Supreme Court stated that it is not
necessary to conduct a factual inquiry even when government’s land use regulation is a
categorical taking that results in the physical invasion of the private property or in the denial of all
economically beneficial or productive use of the property.
10. The central point of the Lucas v. South Carolina Coastal Council case is completely stated as:
11. An owner who wants to build on his land can be deprived of the building permit if the government
denial of the permit is based on proof of:
12. When land use regulations impact the content of speech of a landowner’s use of his land, the
U.S. Supreme Court has held that such a regulation may be constitutionally valid if the
government shows a compelling governmental interest, the interest is advanced by the
regulation, and the regulation is no broader than necessary to serve that interest.
13. The law of exactions imposes the burden of proof on the government to prove that the demands
it is making on the landowner who seeks to build on his property are valid. What must
government prove?
14. The Penn Central Transp. Co. v. New York City court held:
15. The key rule to take away from the Kelo v. City of New London case is:
16. The Kelo v. City of New London ruling creates the possibility that:
17. State governments may not establish standards for eminent domain that are different than what
the U.S. Supreme Court has set.
18. A landowner who obtains a building permit and who acts on the permit by spending lots of
money on his/her project, will be entitled to …
19. The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act was a model act for states to adopt. What did states
want to accomplish when they adopted the Act (or variations of it)?

20. Most jurisdictions consider just compensation for a governmental taking of property to include
which of the following?
21. The Nollan v. California Coastal Commission and the Dolan v. City of Tigard cases establish
rules that are meant to:
22. When local government for the first time enacts a zoning law that creates zoning districts, many
landowners will find that the use of their respective properties does not conform to the new
regulations. Thus, in a lawsuit that claims a regulatory taking has occurred, the landowners
would be entitled to:
23. In a regulatory taking case brought by the landowner against the government because the
regulation reduces the land’s value, the taking of private property will be adjudged by what
standard?
24. In Penn Central, which of the following is not part of the judicial analysis to determine the
constitutionality of a land use regulation?
25. A landowner whose use is unusual but in accordance with the local zoning code will seek a
variance from the local authorities, while a landowner whose use deviates from the zoning
regulations will seek a special exception.

JURI 550 Discussion Boards
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/juri-550-discussion-boards/
JURI 550 Discussion 1 Theories of Property & Property Rights
JURI 550 Discussion 2 U.S. Supreme Court Takings Case
Discussions are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to create the
first thread with one reply (Discussion: Theories of Property & Property Rights) and a second thread
with one reply (Discussion: U.S. Supreme Court Takings Case) in response to the provided prompt for
each Discussion. Each thread must be 500–600 words and demonstrate course-related knowledge.
Each reply must be at least 250–300 words. For each Discussion, the student is required to post a
thread and then post one reply. The reply will critique another classmate’s thread. Students must insert
footnotes in all threads and replies, using The Bluebook: A Uniform System of Citation book (19th ed.
or more recent) citation format to reference the textbook, the Bible passages in the prompt, Bible
commentaries, or other scholarly articles that support the student’s assertions.
Chapter 1 in the Understanding Property Law text briefly reviews the current predominant view of law
known as legal positivism and the predominant view of natural law at the nation’s founding. Chapter 2
briefly discusses 6 theories about property and property rights. Read Chapters 1–2 and the biblical
passages found at Genesis 1:26–30, Genesis 2:15, and Exodus 20:15– 17. Select 1 theory discussed
in Chapter 2 and compare/ contrast the theory you select with these biblical passages. Explain
whether the theory reflects the principles these passages express or imply. Your statement must
discuss the theory and each of the biblical passages. You must use current Bluebook citations to
reference the textbook and page number, and the Bible books and verses. (Bluebook citations are to
be inserted as footnotes and do not count toward the word count.)
The student will complete Discussion:Theories of Property & Property Rights.The student will post one
thread of at least 500 words by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday of the assigned Module 1: Week 1.You will
then post your first reply of at least 250 words by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday of the assigned Module
3: Week 3.You will then submit a second reply of at least 250 words by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Sunday of
the assigned Module 4: Week 4

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