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NPC Model Questions with Answer key.
1. The section 24 of drug act 2035 include…..
a. Sending sample of drug for test by inspector
b. Sending sample of drug for test by analyst
c. Sending sample of drug for test by company
d. All of above
2. Preamble of drug act 2035 does not speak on
a. Storage of drug b. Consumption of drug
c. Clinical trial of drug d. Quality of drug
3. Following are the policy strategy of the national drug policy,1995 except;
a. Drug management b. Manpower development c.
National drug industry d. New drug development
4. After expiry of certificate mentioned in section 11 of drug act 2035, it should be renewed
a. Within 35 days of expirary
b. Within 3 months by paying 25% extra fee.
c. Within 15 days of expiraryPharma Info Nepal
d. Both a & b
5. When national list of essential drugs formulated in Nepal?
a. 1976 b. 1987
c. 1986 d. 1998
6. Which of the following is not official Pharmacopeia?
a. Indian Pharmacopeia b. Nepalese Pharmacopeia
c. Chinese Pharmacopeia d. Europen Pharmacopeia
7. Narcotic and poisonous drugs to be kept safe, is related to which section of drug standard regulation
a. Section 33 b. Section 26
c. Section 14 d. Section 30
8. Provision of categraziation of drug is related to which section, according to drug standard
regulation
a. Section 17 b. Section 10
c. Section 31 d. Section 5
9
.
9. Prohibition of adulteration in `Drug Act 2035` is in section
a. 26 b. 29
c. 30 d. 33
10. According to the pharmacy council act, the term of office of the member nomininated to
the pharmacy council
a. 3years b. 4 Years
c. 2 Years d. 5 Years C
11. As per WHO following drug combination are considered as rational, except
a. Trimethoprim + Sulphamethoxazole b. Digitalis + Frusemide
c. Lidocaine + Epinephrine d. Neomycin + Bacitracin
12. Medicine are prescribed in the following part of prescription.
a. Transcription d. Subscription
c. Inscription d. Superscription
13. How many Pharmacopia and literatures are recognized in Nepal?
a. 9 b. 10
c. 11 d. 12
14. Which of the following covers the various aspects of quality management system;
a. ISO 9000 b. ISO 14000
c. ISO 17000 d. ISO 20000
15. Nepalese national formulary does not contain
a. Preparation b. MOA
c. Price d. Dose
16. According to medicine registration guideline, expiry/shelf life is based on the stability test report
a. One commercial batch b. One R & D batch
c. Three commercial batch d. Three R & D batch
17. Cold temperature means
a. Below 00
C b. 2-80
C
c. -2 to – 80
C d. 400
C
18. Which of the following is not related to the important criteria for proper use of drug?
a. Correct dispensing and suitable packing
b. Accurate diagnosis
c. Rational drug prescribing and patient compliance
d. Promotional literance
19. Which organization was established in 1964 A.D
a. Bir Hospital b. Nepal Drug Limited
c. Chemi Drug Industries d. National Medicine Laboratory
20. Certifiacted level in pharmacy course in Nepal was first strated by
a. CTEVT b. Kathmandu Univeristy
c. Purbanchal University d. Tribhwan University
21. Assurance that a mesaurment equipment gives correct result is called?
a. Validation b. Qualification
c. Calibration d. Verification
22. Which of the following is not included in the definition of `Pharmacy profession` in Nepal
pharmacy council act?
a. Hospital Pharmacy b. Community Pharmacy
c. Drug Production d. Quality Control of Drug
23. Which of the following is the method of sterilization of large volume parentrals?
a. Dry Heat b. Moist Heat
c. Gaseous d. Radiation
24. What is the maximum limit of fine and imprisonment for the violation of Nepal Pharmacy
Council Act?
a. Rs 3000 & 3 Months b. Rs 5000 & 6 Months
c. Rs 10000 & 1 Year d. Rs 20000 & 2 Years
25. National List of essential drugs contain;
a. All drugs registered in the country
b. Single-Ingrident drug only
c. Realtively Cheaper drugs only
d. Most needed drugs for majority of population
26. Which of the following is a netural chemical messenger for the adrenergic receptor?
a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin d. Noradrenaline
27. Penicilline on hydrolysis with alkali gives
a. Penicilloic acid b. Penaldic acid
c. Penicillic acid d. Penicillamine
28. What does the symbol P represent in a QSAR equation?
a.pH b. Plasma Concentration
c. Partition Cofficeint d. Prodrug
29. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound?
a. Dopamine b. Endorphins
c. Noradrenaline d. Desipramin
30. Which of the following causes fruit ripening?
a. Auxin b. Cytokinin
c. Gibberellins d. Etylene
31. Wagner Reagent contains
a.Iodine + KI water b. KI + bismuth iodide
c. Iodine d. Mercuric chloride + KI in water
32. Latex vessels are present in phloem of which drug?
a. Lobelia b. Datura
c. Sarpagandha d. Gokhru
33. Which of the following alkaloids are liquid and volatile in nature?
a. Nicotine & Coniine b. Morphine & Paparvarine
c. Atropine & Quinine d. None of these
34. One of the following is considered as bioavailibilty enhancer
a. Amla b. Arjuna
c. Piper d. Garlic
35. Total volatile oil content present in fennol is……………..
a. NLT 1.4% b. NLT 2.5%
c. NLT 5.0% d. NLT 6.0%
36. Fiehe`s test is for
a. Artificial invert sugar b. Glycosides
c. Alkaloids d. Tannins
37. Which of the following is pro drug?
a. Sulfasalazine b. Sulindac
c. Aspirin d. Siloxane
38. Select the photosensitive active pharmaceutical
a.Ciprofloxacin b. Nifeedipine
c. Both a & b d. Simvastain
39. Maximum amount of postassium loss is done by
a. Spironolactone b. Acetazolamide
c. Chlorthalidone d. Torasemide
40. Beta Carboline ring system is present in
a. Emetine b. Riboflavine
c. Deserpidine d. d – Tubocurarine
41. A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following
properties undergoes transition on
a. Polarizability b. Dielectric constant
c. Diploe moment d. Refractivity
42. Alkoloids are not precipitiated by
a. Mayer`s Reagent b. Dragendroff Reagent
c. Picric acid d. Millon`s Reagent
43. Anisocytic stomata are present in
a. Senna b. Digitalis
c. Belladonna d. Coca
44. Triterpenoids are active constituents of
a. Jaborandi b. Rhubarb
c. Stramonium d. Brahmi
45. Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure;
a. an endoperoxide b. an exoperoxide
c. an epoxide d. an acid hydrazide
46. Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using
a. Sheep blood b. Mice lymph
c. Horse plasma d. Fertile eggs
47. Chemically Nimesulide is
a. Napthayl acetic acid dvt b. Aryl acetic acid dvt
c. Methane sulfonamide dvt d. All
48. Which of the following antiulcer agent obtain from liquorice root?
a. Sucralfate b. Carbinoxolone
c. Misoprostol d. None
49. Triphala churn contain
a. Amla b. Barro
c. Harro d. All
50. Which Nitroimidazole derivative having morpholine moiety?
a. Tinidazole b. Ornidazole
c. Timorazole d. Metronidazole
51.
Active form of chlormphenicol
is
a. D- Erythro d. D- Thero
c. L- Erythro d. L- Threo
52. Efficiency of HEPA filter to remove particles upto 0.3 micron is
a.99.99 % b. 98.97%
c. 99.89% d. 99.97%
53. In limit test for lead the regent use as per. I.P & B.P is
a. Dithiazone b. Lead sulphide
c. Both d. Lead nitrate
54. Benzofuran ring containing drugs
a. Amiodarone b. Griseofluvin
c. Frusemide d. a & b
55. Stratified cork is characteristic of
a. Ergot b. Senna
c. Cinchona d. Rauwolfia
56. Chemical shift takes place in;
a. NMR b. IR
c. UV d. Mass spectrometary
57. According to USP the pH of water for injection is
a. 5-7 b. 6-7
c. 7 d. 5-8
58. For Adrenaline synthesis the precursor amino acid is
a. Alamine b. Proline
c. Phenylalanine d. Cystine
59. Which of the following gas is present in golay detector?
a. Xenon b. Argon
c. Helium d. Hydrogen
61. Most widely used detector in UV spectrometary is
a. Bolometer b Photomultiplier tube
c. Phoroemissive cell d. Pyroelectric detector
62. Which of the following is an example for atomic spectra;
a. UV spectra b. Colorimetry
c. Flourimetry d. Flame Photometry
63. Flame photometry cannot be used for;
a. Barium b. Calcium
c. Selenium d. Sodium
64. Principle of paper chromatography is
a. Adsorption b. Partition
c. Ion Exchange d. Affinity
65. In gas chromatography sample must be in
a. Solid state b. Gas state
c. Liqiud state d. Crystal
66. Quantitive analysis in GLC is based on
a. Time required for peaks to appear b. Peak Height
c. Peak area d. Both b & c
67. Which of the following has strongest absorbent?
a. Cellulose b. Calcium carbonate
c. Fuller`s Earth d. Silica gel
68. Nitrogen estimation is done by
a. Kjeldahal method b. Gasometry
c. Karl fischer d. None of above
69. Diazotisation titiration is used for the assay of
a. NSAIDs b. Sulpha drugs
c. Steroids d. All of above
70. The end point of complexometric titration is shown by
a. Acid – base indicators b. pM indicators
c. Colorimeter d. pH meter
71. Analytical method validation is mentioned in…………. guideline
a. EMEA b. WHO
c. ICH d. GMP
72. Paracetamol is assyed by
a. Ceric ammonium sulphate b. I2
c. HPLC d. KIO3
73. Which of the following is aprotic solvent?
a. Benzene b. Glacial acetic acid
c. Pyridine d. Ethylenediamine
74. ………………….. is assayed by acid- base back titration.
a. Zic oxide b. Aspirin
c. Lactic acid d. All
75. Purity of water is determined by
a. Conductometer b. HPLC
c. Potentiometer d. UV
76. Which of the following is primarily not a chemical decomposition?
a. Isomerization b. Hydrolysis
c. Oxidation d. Volatilization
77. Which category of drug is evaluated for dissolution?
a. Highly diffusible b. Diffusion
c. Poorly water soluble d. Water soluble
78. How much solvent is required to dissolve a sparingly soluble salt?
a. 10 to 30 parts b. 1 to 10 parts
c. 100 to 150 parts d. 100 to 1000 parts
79. Absolute bioavailability is denoted by
a. [AUC]oral/[AUC] i.v. b. [AUC]test/[AUC]std
c. [AUC]oral.Div/ [AUC]iv. Doral d. AUC]test.Dstd/ [AUC]std. Dtest
80. The order of dissolution of different dosage forms of drugs is _______.
a. Metastable > stable > amorphous
b. Stable > amorphous > metastable
c. Amorphous > metastable > stable
d. Amorphous > stable > metastable
81. Which of the following polymorphic form of drug has highest solubility of drug?
a. Amorphus b. Metastable c. Stable d. Hydrated
82. Which one of the following process is responsible for higher half-life of drug?
a. Drug Absorption b. Excretion
c. Metabolism d. Protein binding
83. Very weak bases (pKa = 5.0) nature drug absorbed in which of the following part in our body?
a. Stomach b. Intestine
c. Colon d. Entire length of GIT
84. Aseptic area (sterile area) is
a. Class 100 area b. C;ass 1000 area
c. Class 10 area d. Class 10000 area
85. Which animal is used for pyrogen testing?
a. Rat b. Mice
c. Rabbit d. Guinea pig
86. Which of the following dye is used for the leak test
a. Orange red b. Methylene blue
c. Methylene red d. None of above
87. Water for injection differ from sterile water for injection as it free from
a. CO2 b. Pyrogen
c. Preservatives d. Antioxident
88. Antimicrobial agent used in the ophthalmic solution is
a. Chlorhexidine b. Salicyclic acid
c. Sodium bicarbonate d. PEG 4000
89. Following are the oily solvents used for parentral except;
a. Cotton seed oil b. Sesame oil
c. Ethyl oleate d. Caster oil
90. Superdisinterigants in tablet formulation is
a. Sodium starch glycolate b. Starch
c. PVP d. Mg- aluminium silicate
91. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
a. Compressed tablets b. Suppositries
c. Soft gelatin capsules d. Controlled releases drug products
92. Temperature range for the dissolution test as per IP is
a. 37±1°C b. 37±0.1°C c. 37±2°C d. 37±0.5°C
93. ……………. Is an eteric coating material.
a. HPMC b. CMC c. CAP d. All of above
94. Which sterilization method is used for vitamin B?
a. Autocalving b. Heating
c. Filtration d. All of the above
95. Magnesium state is used as
a. Antioxidant b. Antiadherant
c. Tablet glidant d. Film coating
96. Which of the following test is not official in Indian pharmacopeia?
a. Hardness b. Friability
c. Disintergration d. Content uniformity test
97. Giudeline on stability testing of drugs are given in
a. ICH b. USFDA
c. Both d. None
98. As per IP, the percentage of sucrose in simple syrup is
a.56% w/w b. 66.67% w/v
c 66.67%w/w d. 85% w/w
99. Separation of tablet into two or more distinct layers is
a. Picking b. Capping
c. Lamination d. Broken
100. Which of the following is a pH-senitive bioerodible polymer?
a. Polymethacrylate b. HPMC
c. NaCMC d. None
101. Drug of choice in treatment of cardiogenic shock is/are
a. Isoproterenol b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine d. All of above
102. Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?
a. GPCR b. Ion channel
c. Enzyme linked d. Steroid receptor
103. Which drug may decreases iodide uptake by thyroid?
a. Repaglinide b. Rosiglitazone
c. Glipizide d. Tolbutamide
104. Drug of choice for migraine
a. Flunarazine b. Paracetamol
c. Sumatriptin d. Naproxen
105 . Toxic effect of L-dopa can be reversed by administration of
a.Folic acid b. Vitamin B12
c. Pyrodoxine d. Thiamine
106. Red man syndrome is the side effect of drug
a. Rifampicin b. Tetracycline
c. Vancomycin d. Chlormphenicol
107. Skin discoloration form red brown to black is caused by
a. Dapsone b. Clofazimine
c. Ethambutol d. All of above
108. Optic neuritis is major side effect of drug
a. Rifampicine b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazide d. Pyrazinamide
109. The term bioavailability included in,
a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Pharmacoecnomics d. Both a & b
110. Pernicious anemia is due to the defecency of
a. Metformin b. Methylcobalamine
c. Pyrodoxine d. Iron
111. The ratio of trimethoprim & sulphamethoxazole in cotrimoxazole is
a. 1:5 b. 5:1
c. 2:1 d. 5:5
112. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the treatement of
a. Malaria b. Urinary Tract infection
c. Gastrointestial tract infection d. Jaundice
113. The antihypertensive agent also used for hair regrowth is
a. Nitroglycerine b. Nitroprusside
. Minoxidil d. Verapamil
114. Which one of the following drug is bacteriostatic
a. Ethambutol b. Dapsone
c. Isonizide d. Rifampicine
115. Lactulose is a
a. Purgative agent b. Antidiarrhoeal agent
c. Antispasmodic agent d. Antacid
116. Example of stimulant purgative is
a. Ispaghula husk b. Cisapride
c. Senna d. Lactulose
117. Which of the following drug is used to treat hypertension during pregeancy
a. Hydralazine b. Diazoxide
c. Clonidine d. Minoxidil
118. Apirin should not be used in ---------------
a. Gout b. myocardial infraction
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
119. Crohn`s disease affects ------- parts
a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Kideny
c. Lung d. Heart
120. In lower urinary tract infection which oral antibiotics is not used?
a. Amoxicillin b. Cefalexin
c. Nitrofurantion d. Tetracycline
121. Which sulfonamide is used topically?
a. PABA b. DFA
c. DHFA d. TFA
122. Which one is broad spectrum antihelmenthics
a. Tinidazole b. Albendazole
c. Metronidazole d. Niclosamide
123. Hypnotic used in geriatric patients is
a. Methyl prylone b. Meprobamate
c. Paraaldehyde d. Etomidate
124. Drug which is known to include ‘hirsutism’ as a side effect is;
a. Thallium b. Phenytoin
c. Cephalosporin d. Heparin
125. One of the following is not a example of inhalation anaesthesia
a. Halothane b. Thiopental sodium
c. Isoflurance d. Trichloroethylene
126. Beta oxidation of fatty acids takes place in:-
a. Mitichindria b. Cytoplasma
c. Nucleus d. Chloroplast
127. In size exclusion chromatography the stationary phase used are
a. Alumina b. Dextrose
c. Agarose d. Styrene
128. Which sulfonamide is not used in diuretics?
a. Tolbutamide b. Bumetanide
c. Chlorthalidone d. Furesemide
129. Monthly eye examination is required with following drug treatment?
a. Ethambutol b. Pyrazinamide
c. Ethionamide d. Streptomycin
130. Clavunic acid has beta lactam ring fused with
a. Thienyl system b. Thiadiazole
c. Thiazolidone d. Oxazolidone
131. Which group of medicines should be priotised for procurement purpose?
a. National Manufacturing Medicine b. Life saving Essential Medicine
c. Cheap Medicine d. Expensive Medicine
132. Pharmacopiea mainly concentrate on
a. Drug Interaction b. Drug use
c. Drug Delivery system d. Drug Standard
133. Which of the following point does not come under the conception of Patient Counselling?
a. Information like how to taje medicine, how to stor medicine properly
b. Information like when to take medicine
c. Information like how to by cheap Medicine
d. Information on side effect, Contraindication
134. Following which method is not appropriate for safe disposal of antineoplastic drugs?
a. Return to donor or manufactures b. Waste encapsulation
c. Pass to sewage drain d. Medium & high temp. incineration
135. A Patient taking pyridium salt should be warned about;
a. Marked drowsiness b. Gastric discomfort
c. Headache d. Discoloration of the urine
136. Hospital formulary provides;
a. General information of drugs that available in the country
b. information for procuring, processing, dispensing and administrateting of drugs in hospital
c. Information of latest adverse drug reaction & regulatory information on drugs
d. None of above
137. For public sector procurement of drugs in logistic management which basis is not appropriate for
drug selection?
a. Quality specification b. Cost effective c. Nepalese
manufactured drugs d. Availability
138. The extent to which an individual patient behavior coincides with the given medical advice is
a. Patient Compliance b. Patient Compliance
c. Non Compliance d. None of abvove
139. Which one is true statement?
a. Greater the number of drug, best the compliances
b. Greater the number of drug, risk of adverse effect
c. Greater the number of drugs, risk of noncompliance
d. Greater the number of drug quick the recovery
140. Prescription for pharmacist is
a. Key document b. Instrument for organizing instruction & counseling
c. Document that has to be recorded d. Compulsory instruction of action
141. One of plasma calcium level regulator hormone is;
a. Corticosteroids b. Prostaglandin
c. Parathromones d.. Estrogen
142. Which one is not aim of standard treatment guideline?
a. Uniformity in practice b. No need of referral
c. Avoid Mistake d. Managing in low cost
143. Which one is NOT medicine distribution system for in-patient?
a. Floor stock system b. Patient Prescription
c. FEFO system d. Unit dose system
144. Mistake at what step in NOT considered medication error
a. Prescribing b. Distribution
c. Dispensing d. Administration
145. Which one of the following is not the criteria for banning drug?
a. Harmful b. Expensive
c. Irrational combination d. Misuse or abuse of drug
146. Who investigates the cases under Narcotic substance (Control) act?
a. Police b. Drug Inspector
c. Public Prosecutor d. Person nominated by DDA
147. Which is not the function of drug and therapeutic committee?
a. Develop hospital formulary b. Initiate drug use review programme
c. Procure medicine for the hospital d. Advice Pharmacy for drug distribution
148. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating dose for children except;
a. Height b.. Weight
c. Disease Condition d. Body surface area
149. Which is not part of rational drug use?
a. Right does b. Appropriate clinical need
c. Cheap Medicine d. Right duration
150. Which is NOT a step of procurement cycle?
a. Determine quantity needed b. Locate and select suppliers
c. Receive and check drugs d. Dispose expired drugs
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Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions with Answer keys

  • 1. NPC Model Questions with Answer key. 1. The section 24 of drug act 2035 include….. a. Sending sample of drug for test by inspector b. Sending sample of drug for test by analyst c. Sending sample of drug for test by company d. All of above 2. Preamble of drug act 2035 does not speak on a. Storage of drug b. Consumption of drug c. Clinical trial of drug d. Quality of drug 3. Following are the policy strategy of the national drug policy,1995 except; a. Drug management b. Manpower development c. National drug industry d. New drug development 4. After expiry of certificate mentioned in section 11 of drug act 2035, it should be renewed a. Within 35 days of expirary b. Within 3 months by paying 25% extra fee. c. Within 15 days of expiraryPharma Info Nepal d. Both a & b 5. When national list of essential drugs formulated in Nepal? a. 1976 b. 1987 c. 1986 d. 1998 6. Which of the following is not official Pharmacopeia? a. Indian Pharmacopeia b. Nepalese Pharmacopeia c. Chinese Pharmacopeia d. Europen Pharmacopeia 7. Narcotic and poisonous drugs to be kept safe, is related to which section of drug standard regulation a. Section 33 b. Section 26 c. Section 14 d. Section 30 8. Provision of categraziation of drug is related to which section, according to drug standard regulation a. Section 17 b. Section 10 c. Section 31 d. Section 5 9 . 9. Prohibition of adulteration in `Drug Act 2035` is in section a. 26 b. 29 c. 30 d. 33 10. According to the pharmacy council act, the term of office of the member nomininated to the pharmacy council a. 3years b. 4 Years c. 2 Years d. 5 Years C 11. As per WHO following drug combination are considered as rational, except a. Trimethoprim + Sulphamethoxazole b. Digitalis + Frusemide c. Lidocaine + Epinephrine d. Neomycin + Bacitracin 12. Medicine are prescribed in the following part of prescription. a. Transcription d. Subscription c. Inscription d. Superscription 13. How many Pharmacopia and literatures are recognized in Nepal? a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 14. Which of the following covers the various aspects of quality management system; a. ISO 9000 b. ISO 14000 c. ISO 17000 d. ISO 20000
  • 2. 15. Nepalese national formulary does not contain a. Preparation b. MOA c. Price d. Dose 16. According to medicine registration guideline, expiry/shelf life is based on the stability test report a. One commercial batch b. One R & D batch c. Three commercial batch d. Three R & D batch 17. Cold temperature means a. Below 00 C b. 2-80 C c. -2 to – 80 C d. 400 C 18. Which of the following is not related to the important criteria for proper use of drug? a. Correct dispensing and suitable packing b. Accurate diagnosis c. Rational drug prescribing and patient compliance d. Promotional literance 19. Which organization was established in 1964 A.D a. Bir Hospital b. Nepal Drug Limited c. Chemi Drug Industries d. National Medicine Laboratory 20. Certifiacted level in pharmacy course in Nepal was first strated by a. CTEVT b. Kathmandu Univeristy c. Purbanchal University d. Tribhwan University 21. Assurance that a mesaurment equipment gives correct result is called? a. Validation b. Qualification c. Calibration d. Verification 22. Which of the following is not included in the definition of `Pharmacy profession` in Nepal pharmacy council act? a. Hospital Pharmacy b. Community Pharmacy c. Drug Production d. Quality Control of Drug 23. Which of the following is the method of sterilization of large volume parentrals? a. Dry Heat b. Moist Heat c. Gaseous d. Radiation 24. What is the maximum limit of fine and imprisonment for the violation of Nepal Pharmacy Council Act? a. Rs 3000 & 3 Months b. Rs 5000 & 6 Months c. Rs 10000 & 1 Year d. Rs 20000 & 2 Years 25. National List of essential drugs contain; a. All drugs registered in the country b. Single-Ingrident drug only c. Realtively Cheaper drugs only d. Most needed drugs for majority of population 26. Which of the following is a netural chemical messenger for the adrenergic receptor? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Noradrenaline 27. Penicilline on hydrolysis with alkali gives a. Penicilloic acid b. Penaldic acid c. Penicillic acid d. Penicillamine 28. What does the symbol P represent in a QSAR equation? a.pH b. Plasma Concentration c. Partition Cofficeint d. Prodrug 29. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound? a. Dopamine b. Endorphins c. Noradrenaline d. Desipramin
  • 3. 30. Which of the following causes fruit ripening? a. Auxin b. Cytokinin c. Gibberellins d. Etylene 31. Wagner Reagent contains a.Iodine + KI water b. KI + bismuth iodide c. Iodine d. Mercuric chloride + KI in water 32. Latex vessels are present in phloem of which drug? a. Lobelia b. Datura c. Sarpagandha d. Gokhru 33. Which of the following alkaloids are liquid and volatile in nature? a. Nicotine & Coniine b. Morphine & Paparvarine c. Atropine & Quinine d. None of these 34. One of the following is considered as bioavailibilty enhancer a. Amla b. Arjuna c. Piper d. Garlic 35. Total volatile oil content present in fennol is…………….. a. NLT 1.4% b. NLT 2.5% c. NLT 5.0% d. NLT 6.0% 36. Fiehe`s test is for a. Artificial invert sugar b. Glycosides c. Alkaloids d. Tannins 37. Which of the following is pro drug? a. Sulfasalazine b. Sulindac c. Aspirin d. Siloxane 38. Select the photosensitive active pharmaceutical a.Ciprofloxacin b. Nifeedipine c. Both a & b d. Simvastain 39. Maximum amount of postassium loss is done by a. Spironolactone b. Acetazolamide c. Chlorthalidone d. Torasemide 40. Beta Carboline ring system is present in a. Emetine b. Riboflavine c. Deserpidine d. d – Tubocurarine 41. A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergoes transition on a. Polarizability b. Dielectric constant c. Diploe moment d. Refractivity 42. Alkoloids are not precipitiated by a. Mayer`s Reagent b. Dragendroff Reagent c. Picric acid d. Millon`s Reagent 43. Anisocytic stomata are present in a. Senna b. Digitalis c. Belladonna d. Coca 44. Triterpenoids are active constituents of a. Jaborandi b. Rhubarb c. Stramonium d. Brahmi 45. Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure; a. an endoperoxide b. an exoperoxide c. an epoxide d. an acid hydrazide
  • 4. 46. Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using a. Sheep blood b. Mice lymph c. Horse plasma d. Fertile eggs 47. Chemically Nimesulide is a. Napthayl acetic acid dvt b. Aryl acetic acid dvt c. Methane sulfonamide dvt d. All 48. Which of the following antiulcer agent obtain from liquorice root? a. Sucralfate b. Carbinoxolone c. Misoprostol d. None 49. Triphala churn contain a. Amla b. Barro c. Harro d. All 50. Which Nitroimidazole derivative having morpholine moiety? a. Tinidazole b. Ornidazole c. Timorazole d. Metronidazole 51. Active form of chlormphenicol is a. D- Erythro d. D- Thero c. L- Erythro d. L- Threo 52. Efficiency of HEPA filter to remove particles upto 0.3 micron is a.99.99 % b. 98.97% c. 99.89% d. 99.97% 53. In limit test for lead the regent use as per. I.P & B.P is a. Dithiazone b. Lead sulphide c. Both d. Lead nitrate 54. Benzofuran ring containing drugs a. Amiodarone b. Griseofluvin c. Frusemide d. a & b 55. Stratified cork is characteristic of a. Ergot b. Senna c. Cinchona d. Rauwolfia 56. Chemical shift takes place in; a. NMR b. IR c. UV d. Mass spectrometary 57. According to USP the pH of water for injection is a. 5-7 b. 6-7 c. 7 d. 5-8 58. For Adrenaline synthesis the precursor amino acid is a. Alamine b. Proline c. Phenylalanine d. Cystine 59. Which of the following gas is present in golay detector? a. Xenon b. Argon c. Helium d. Hydrogen 61. Most widely used detector in UV spectrometary is a. Bolometer b Photomultiplier tube c. Phoroemissive cell d. Pyroelectric detector 62. Which of the following is an example for atomic spectra; a. UV spectra b. Colorimetry c. Flourimetry d. Flame Photometry
  • 5. 63. Flame photometry cannot be used for; a. Barium b. Calcium c. Selenium d. Sodium 64. Principle of paper chromatography is a. Adsorption b. Partition c. Ion Exchange d. Affinity 65. In gas chromatography sample must be in a. Solid state b. Gas state c. Liqiud state d. Crystal 66. Quantitive analysis in GLC is based on a. Time required for peaks to appear b. Peak Height c. Peak area d. Both b & c 67. Which of the following has strongest absorbent? a. Cellulose b. Calcium carbonate c. Fuller`s Earth d. Silica gel 68. Nitrogen estimation is done by a. Kjeldahal method b. Gasometry c. Karl fischer d. None of above 69. Diazotisation titiration is used for the assay of a. NSAIDs b. Sulpha drugs c. Steroids d. All of above 70. The end point of complexometric titration is shown by a. Acid – base indicators b. pM indicators c. Colorimeter d. pH meter 71. Analytical method validation is mentioned in…………. guideline a. EMEA b. WHO c. ICH d. GMP 72. Paracetamol is assyed by a. Ceric ammonium sulphate b. I2 c. HPLC d. KIO3 73. Which of the following is aprotic solvent? a. Benzene b. Glacial acetic acid c. Pyridine d. Ethylenediamine 74. ………………….. is assayed by acid- base back titration. a. Zic oxide b. Aspirin c. Lactic acid d. All 75. Purity of water is determined by a. Conductometer b. HPLC c. Potentiometer d. UV 76. Which of the following is primarily not a chemical decomposition? a. Isomerization b. Hydrolysis c. Oxidation d. Volatilization 77. Which category of drug is evaluated for dissolution? a. Highly diffusible b. Diffusion c. Poorly water soluble d. Water soluble 78. How much solvent is required to dissolve a sparingly soluble salt? a. 10 to 30 parts b. 1 to 10 parts c. 100 to 150 parts d. 100 to 1000 parts 79. Absolute bioavailability is denoted by a. [AUC]oral/[AUC] i.v. b. [AUC]test/[AUC]std c. [AUC]oral.Div/ [AUC]iv. Doral d. AUC]test.Dstd/ [AUC]std. Dtest
  • 6. 80. The order of dissolution of different dosage forms of drugs is _______. a. Metastable > stable > amorphous b. Stable > amorphous > metastable c. Amorphous > metastable > stable d. Amorphous > stable > metastable 81. Which of the following polymorphic form of drug has highest solubility of drug? a. Amorphus b. Metastable c. Stable d. Hydrated 82. Which one of the following process is responsible for higher half-life of drug? a. Drug Absorption b. Excretion c. Metabolism d. Protein binding 83. Very weak bases (pKa = 5.0) nature drug absorbed in which of the following part in our body? a. Stomach b. Intestine c. Colon d. Entire length of GIT 84. Aseptic area (sterile area) is a. Class 100 area b. C;ass 1000 area c. Class 10 area d. Class 10000 area 85. Which animal is used for pyrogen testing? a. Rat b. Mice c. Rabbit d. Guinea pig 86. Which of the following dye is used for the leak test a. Orange red b. Methylene blue c. Methylene red d. None of above 87. Water for injection differ from sterile water for injection as it free from a. CO2 b. Pyrogen c. Preservatives d. Antioxident 88. Antimicrobial agent used in the ophthalmic solution is a. Chlorhexidine b. Salicyclic acid c. Sodium bicarbonate d. PEG 4000 89. Following are the oily solvents used for parentral except; a. Cotton seed oil b. Sesame oil c. Ethyl oleate d. Caster oil 90. Superdisinterigants in tablet formulation is a. Sodium starch glycolate b. Starch c. PVP d. Mg- aluminium silicate 91. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of a. Compressed tablets b. Suppositries c. Soft gelatin capsules d. Controlled releases drug products 92. Temperature range for the dissolution test as per IP is a. 37±1°C b. 37±0.1°C c. 37±2°C d. 37±0.5°C 93. ……………. Is an eteric coating material. a. HPMC b. CMC c. CAP d. All of above 94. Which sterilization method is used for vitamin B? a. Autocalving b. Heating c. Filtration d. All of the above 95. Magnesium state is used as a. Antioxidant b. Antiadherant c. Tablet glidant d. Film coating
  • 7. 96. Which of the following test is not official in Indian pharmacopeia? a. Hardness b. Friability c. Disintergration d. Content uniformity test 97. Giudeline on stability testing of drugs are given in a. ICH b. USFDA c. Both d. None 98. As per IP, the percentage of sucrose in simple syrup is a.56% w/w b. 66.67% w/v c 66.67%w/w d. 85% w/w 99. Separation of tablet into two or more distinct layers is a. Picking b. Capping c. Lamination d. Broken 100. Which of the following is a pH-senitive bioerodible polymer? a. Polymethacrylate b. HPMC c. NaCMC d. None 101. Drug of choice in treatment of cardiogenic shock is/are a. Isoproterenol b. Epinephrine c. Dopamine d. All of above 102. Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response? a. GPCR b. Ion channel c. Enzyme linked d. Steroid receptor 103. Which drug may decreases iodide uptake by thyroid? a. Repaglinide b. Rosiglitazone c. Glipizide d. Tolbutamide 104. Drug of choice for migraine a. Flunarazine b. Paracetamol c. Sumatriptin d. Naproxen 105 . Toxic effect of L-dopa can be reversed by administration of a.Folic acid b. Vitamin B12 c. Pyrodoxine d. Thiamine 106. Red man syndrome is the side effect of drug a. Rifampicin b. Tetracycline c. Vancomycin d. Chlormphenicol 107. Skin discoloration form red brown to black is caused by a. Dapsone b. Clofazimine c. Ethambutol d. All of above 108. Optic neuritis is major side effect of drug a. Rifampicine b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazide d. Pyrazinamide 109. The term bioavailability included in, a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. Pharmacoecnomics d. Both a & b 110. Pernicious anemia is due to the defecency of a. Metformin b. Methylcobalamine c. Pyrodoxine d. Iron 111. The ratio of trimethoprim & sulphamethoxazole in cotrimoxazole is a. 1:5 b. 5:1 c. 2:1 d. 5:5 112. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the treatement of a. Malaria b. Urinary Tract infection c. Gastrointestial tract infection d. Jaundice
  • 8. 113. The antihypertensive agent also used for hair regrowth is a. Nitroglycerine b. Nitroprusside . Minoxidil d. Verapamil 114. Which one of the following drug is bacteriostatic a. Ethambutol b. Dapsone c. Isonizide d. Rifampicine 115. Lactulose is a a. Purgative agent b. Antidiarrhoeal agent c. Antispasmodic agent d. Antacid 116. Example of stimulant purgative is a. Ispaghula husk b. Cisapride c. Senna d. Lactulose 117. Which of the following drug is used to treat hypertension during pregeancy a. Hydralazine b. Diazoxide c. Clonidine d. Minoxidil 118. Apirin should not be used in --------------- a. Gout b. myocardial infraction c. Both a & b d. None of the above 119. Crohn`s disease affects ------- parts a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Kideny c. Lung d. Heart 120. In lower urinary tract infection which oral antibiotics is not used? a. Amoxicillin b. Cefalexin c. Nitrofurantion d. Tetracycline 121. Which sulfonamide is used topically? a. PABA b. DFA c. DHFA d. TFA 122. Which one is broad spectrum antihelmenthics a. Tinidazole b. Albendazole c. Metronidazole d. Niclosamide 123. Hypnotic used in geriatric patients is a. Methyl prylone b. Meprobamate c. Paraaldehyde d. Etomidate 124. Drug which is known to include ‘hirsutism’ as a side effect is; a. Thallium b. Phenytoin c. Cephalosporin d. Heparin 125. One of the following is not a example of inhalation anaesthesia a. Halothane b. Thiopental sodium c. Isoflurance d. Trichloroethylene 126. Beta oxidation of fatty acids takes place in:- a. Mitichindria b. Cytoplasma c. Nucleus d. Chloroplast 127. In size exclusion chromatography the stationary phase used are a. Alumina b. Dextrose c. Agarose d. Styrene 128. Which sulfonamide is not used in diuretics? a. Tolbutamide b. Bumetanide c. Chlorthalidone d. Furesemide 129. Monthly eye examination is required with following drug treatment? a. Ethambutol b. Pyrazinamide c. Ethionamide d. Streptomycin
  • 9. 130. Clavunic acid has beta lactam ring fused with a. Thienyl system b. Thiadiazole c. Thiazolidone d. Oxazolidone 131. Which group of medicines should be priotised for procurement purpose? a. National Manufacturing Medicine b. Life saving Essential Medicine c. Cheap Medicine d. Expensive Medicine 132. Pharmacopiea mainly concentrate on a. Drug Interaction b. Drug use c. Drug Delivery system d. Drug Standard 133. Which of the following point does not come under the conception of Patient Counselling? a. Information like how to taje medicine, how to stor medicine properly b. Information like when to take medicine c. Information like how to by cheap Medicine d. Information on side effect, Contraindication 134. Following which method is not appropriate for safe disposal of antineoplastic drugs? a. Return to donor or manufactures b. Waste encapsulation c. Pass to sewage drain d. Medium & high temp. incineration 135. A Patient taking pyridium salt should be warned about; a. Marked drowsiness b. Gastric discomfort c. Headache d. Discoloration of the urine 136. Hospital formulary provides; a. General information of drugs that available in the country b. information for procuring, processing, dispensing and administrateting of drugs in hospital c. Information of latest adverse drug reaction & regulatory information on drugs d. None of above 137. For public sector procurement of drugs in logistic management which basis is not appropriate for drug selection? a. Quality specification b. Cost effective c. Nepalese manufactured drugs d. Availability 138. The extent to which an individual patient behavior coincides with the given medical advice is a. Patient Compliance b. Patient Compliance c. Non Compliance d. None of abvove 139. Which one is true statement? a. Greater the number of drug, best the compliances b. Greater the number of drug, risk of adverse effect c. Greater the number of drugs, risk of noncompliance d. Greater the number of drug quick the recovery 140. Prescription for pharmacist is a. Key document b. Instrument for organizing instruction & counseling c. Document that has to be recorded d. Compulsory instruction of action 141. One of plasma calcium level regulator hormone is; a. Corticosteroids b. Prostaglandin c. Parathromones d.. Estrogen
  • 10. 142. Which one is not aim of standard treatment guideline? a. Uniformity in practice b. No need of referral c. Avoid Mistake d. Managing in low cost 143. Which one is NOT medicine distribution system for in-patient? a. Floor stock system b. Patient Prescription c. FEFO system d. Unit dose system 144. Mistake at what step in NOT considered medication error a. Prescribing b. Distribution c. Dispensing d. Administration 145. Which one of the following is not the criteria for banning drug? a. Harmful b. Expensive c. Irrational combination d. Misuse or abuse of drug 146. Who investigates the cases under Narcotic substance (Control) act? a. Police b. Drug Inspector c. Public Prosecutor d. Person nominated by DDA 147. Which is not the function of drug and therapeutic committee? a. Develop hospital formulary b. Initiate drug use review programme c. Procure medicine for the hospital d. Advice Pharmacy for drug distribution 148. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating dose for children except; a. Height b.. Weight c. Disease Condition d. Body surface area 149. Which is not part of rational drug use? a. Right does b. Appropriate clinical need c. Cheap Medicine d. Right duration 150. Which is NOT a step of procurement cycle? a. Determine quantity needed b. Locate and select suppliers c. Receive and check drugs d. Dispose expired drugs