LEAN SIX SIGMA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.docx

LEAN SIX SIGMA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.docx

LEAN SIX SIGMA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1-Who is considered to be the father of Six Sigma?
(A) Bill Smith
(B) Walter Shewhart
(C) Jack Welch
(D) None of the above
2-The concept of Six Sigma was developed by the following company.
(A) General Electric
(B) Motorola
(C) Honeywell
(D) DuPont
3-Six Sigma strategies seek to improve the quality of the output of a process by
(A) identifying the causes of defects
(B) removing the causes of defects
(C) minimizing variability in manufacturing
(D) all of the above
4-Processes that operate with “six sigma quality” over the short term are assumed to produce long-term defect levels below
___ defects per million opportunities (DPMO)
(A) 2.4
(B) 3.4
(C) 4.4
(D) 5.4
5-The aim of Six Sigma initiative is to
(A) reduce cost
(B) improve quality
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the above
6-Combination of Six Sigma and Lean manufacturing is known as
(A) Advanced Six Sigma
(B) Lean Six Sigma
(C) Operational Six Sigma
(D) None of the above
7-The first standard published by the International Standard Organization (ISO) defining a Six Sigma process.
(A) ISO 13053:2009
(B) ISO 13053:2010
(C) ISO 13053:2011
(D) ISO 13053:2012
8-Six Sigma project follows the following project methodology(ies)
(A) DMAIC
(B) DMADV
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
9-“DMAIC” is used for projects aimed at
(A) improving an existing business process
(B) creating new product or process designs
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
10-“DMAIC” is used for projects aimed at
(A) improving an existing business process
(B) creating new product or process designs
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
11-In “DMAIC”, M stands for
(A) Method
(B) Measure
(C) Machine
(D) Manpower
12-Poka Yoke means
(A) mistake proofing
(B) standardization
(C) process control
(D) none of the above
13-The percentage yield in Six Sigma is
(A) 93.3
(B) 99.38
C) 99.977
(D) 99.99966
14-Six Sigma is applicable to
(A) Finance
(B) Supply chain
(C) Healthcare
(D) All of the above
15. Six Sigma is a business-driven, multi-dimensional structured approach to
A. Reducing process variability
B. Increasing customer satisfaction
C. Lowering Defects
D. Improving Processes
E. All of the above
16. Small/Mid-sized Six Sigma projects are executed by professionals titled as:
A. Champion
B. Green Belt
C. Black Belt
D. Site Champion
17. 1. Six Sigma follows the DMAIC model.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
18. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Identification of project
b) Identification of champion
c) Identification of project owner
d) Identification of founder of the business
View Answer
19. Which of the following does not belong to the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Determination of customer requirements
b) Determination of CTQs
c) Validating the measurements
d) Mapping the process
20. Defining the problem, objective, goals, and benefits belong to the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma.
a) True
b) False
21. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Define’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Project charter and plan
b) Check sheet
c) Effort/impact analysis
d) Process mapping
22. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Measure’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Quality Function Deployment
b) Measurement Systems Analysis
c) Process capability
d) Tree diagram
23. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Measure’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Determining operational definitions
b) Establishing performance standards
c) Developing the project plan
d) Developing data collection and sample plan
24. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Analyze’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Quality Function Deployment
b) Histogram
c) Pareto Diagram
d) Run chart
25. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Improve’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Determination of solution effectiveness using data
b) Implementing solution
c) Developing solution alternatives
d) Closing project and communicating results
26. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Improve’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma?
a) Design of Experiments
b) Brainstorming
c) Statistical Process Control
d) Failure Mode Effect Analysis
27. What does the letter ‘D’ and ‘V’ refer to in the DMADV model?
a) Data, Verify
b) Design, Validate
c) Data, Validate
d) Design, Verify
28. OCAP refers to ________
a) On Control Action Plan
b) Out of Control Action Plan
c) Out of Concern Action Plan
d) Out of Control Assessment Plan
29. The Six Sigma model used for improving the existing process/product is _______
a) DMAIC
b) DMAAD
c) DMADV
d) DMAAX
30. The approach of QFD in product design leads to customer-driven products.
a) True
b) False
31. QFD has a complete focus on the ‘voice of the customer’?
a) True
b) False
32. Which of the following is not a technique used to capture customer requirements for the QFD approach?
a) Market surveys
b) Customer surveys
c) Cash receipt
d) Customer complaints
33. Which tool is used to break down the complex customer needs into key customer needs in QFD approach?
a) Voice of customers
b) Affinity diagram
c) Poka Yoke
d) 5S
34. HOQ refers to _________
a) Headquarters
b) High Quality
c) House of Quality
d) Head of Quality
35. What does the relationship matrix in the House of Quality represent?
a) Correlation between customer requirements and technical descriptors
b) Correlation between good and bad customers
c) Correlation between the organization’s profit and loss
d) Correlation between good and bad investors
36. Which of the following is not an item included in the prioritized customer requirements in the House of Quality?
a) Customer importance rating
b) Customer benchmarking
c) Sales point
d) Technical benchmarking
37. The interrelationship between technical descriptors in the House of Quality is given by _____
a) Relationship matrix
b) Trade-off matrix
c) Customer matrix
d) Customer requirement matrix
38. The technical descriptors are the ________
a) Voice of the customer
b) Voice of the manager
c) Voice of the owner
d) Voice of the organization
39. In which part of the House of Quality ‘product design characteristics’ can be located?
a) Customer requirements
b) Prioritized customer requirements
c) Technical descriptors
d) Prioritized technical descriptors
40. In which part of the House of Quality ‘degree of technical difficulty’ can be located?
a) Customer requirements
b) Prioritized customer requirements
c) Technical descriptors
d) Prioritized technical descriptors
41. TQM is the management approach of an organization, centered on quality, based on the participation of all its members and aiming
at long-term success through customer satisfaction, and benefits to all members of the organization and to society. Which
organization had given this definition of TQM?
a) Total Quality Forum of USA
b) Indian Statistical Institute
c) ISO
d) ASQ
42. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ is referred to when the study of customer needs is done, the requirements of the customer are gathered, and
customer satisfaction is measured and managed?
a) Process Management
b) Employee Empowerment
c) Continuous Improvement
d) Customer Focus
43. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ recognizes that product quality is a result of process quality?
a) Process Management
b) Employee Empowerment
c) Continuous Improvement
d) Customer Focus
44. In traditional management, quality is determined by the company. In total quality management, quality is determined by the
customer.
a) True
b) False
45. To anticipate failures and prevent them from happening is the objective of FMEA.
a) True
b) False
46. What is RPN?
a) Risk Potential Number
b) Risk Priority Number
c) Risk Preference number
d) Risk Preventive Number
47. Find the odd one out related to the FMEA team.
a) Assembly engineer
b) Manufacturing engineer
c) Quality engineer
d) Process variability data
48. A particular product has been given the following rankings for calculating RPN while preparing FMEA chart, S=10, O=2, D=2. What
is the value of RPN?
a) 20
b) 10
c) 40
d) 2
49. There are four stages of FMEA.
i) Specifyingthe possibilities
ii) Quantifying risk
iii) Correcting high risk causes
iv) Re-evaluation of Risk
Which is the correct order of proceeding with these stages of FMEA?
a) i),ii),iii),iv)
b) i),ii),iv),iii)
c) iv),iii),i),ii)
d) iv),iii),ii),i)
50. Who is the father of Toyota Production System (TPS)?
a) Ohno
b) Deming
c) Crosby
d) Taguchi
51. ‘Muda’ refers to waste in Japan.
a) True
b) False
52. Mura and Muri refer to _____ and _____ respectively.
a) Unevenness, waste
b) Unevenness, overburden
c) Overburden, waste
d) Overburden, poka-yoke
53. Muda Type 1 refers to non-value-added activities in the processes that are important for the end customer.
a) True
b) False
54. Which of the following terms in the seven types of wastes categorized by Ohno considers the waiting of one process to begin
while the other one gets over?
a) Overproduction
b) Waiting
c) Transportation
d) Excessive inventory
55. Which of the following means ‘visual cards’?
a) Poka-yoke
b) 5S
c) Muda
d) Kanban
56. C-Kanban is also known as _______
a) P- Kanban
b) Production Kanban
c) Withdrawal Kanban
d) Poka-Yoke
57. Which of the following does not belong to the five principles of lean?
a) Identifying Value
b) Mapping the value stream
c) Creating flow
d) Establishing push
58. In the jargon of statistical process control, USL and LSL are known as _______ and _____ respectively.
a) Upper specification limit, Lower specification limit
b) Upper specification limit, Limit specification limit
c) Up specification limit, Limit specification limit
d) Up specification limit, Lower specification limit
59. Specification limits are also known as ________ of the product.
a) Mode
b) Median
c) Tolerances
d) Allowances
60. If a product falls in the range of USL-LSL then it is meeting the expectation of the customer.
a) True
b) False
61. Natural tolerance is also known as _______
a) Specification limits
b) Control limit
c) Process capability
d) Mean
62. What is the interpretation of Cp>1?
a) The process cannot meet the specification
b) The process will meet the specification
c) The process is just meeting the specification
d) No interpretation is possible
63. What is the interpretation of Cpk=Cp?
a) The process is out of control
b) The process is customer-centric
c) The process is centered
d) The process is costly
64. 5S is defined as a housekeeping technique used to establish and maintain a productive and quality environment in an
organization.
a) True
b) False
65. In which country was 5S invented?
a) India
b) Japan
c) Vietnam
d) Norway
66. What is the English equivalent of the Japanese word ‘Seiri’?
a) Sorting out
b) Systematic arrangement
c) Standardizing
d) Self-discipline
67. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing 5S technique?
a) To improve work efficiency
b) To standardize work practices
c) To improve work discipline
d) To create a dirty workplace
68. Process deployment flow is another term for ________
a) Flow chart
b) Matrices
c) Determinants
d) Arrows
69. Tally sheet is another term for _______
a) Flow chart
b) Matrices
c) Determinants
d) Checksheets
70. The type of checksheet used to collect information on process variability is called ________
a) Process distribution check sheet
b) Defective item check sheet
c) Defect location check sheet
d) Defect factor check sheet
71. The type of check sheet used to monitor the input parameters that can affect the occurrence of defects in a process is called
_________
a) Process distribution check sheet
b) Defective item check sheet
c) Defect location check sheet
d) Defect factor check sheet
72. ‘Random causes of variations’ in any manufacturing process are inevitable.
a) True
b) False
73. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the occurrence of ‘random causes of variation’ in any manufacturing process?
a) Human variability
b) Minor variations in raw materials
c) Working conditions fluctuations
d) Differences among machines
74. ‘Assignment causes of variation’ of any manufacturing process are also known as _______
a) Random causes of variations
b) Common causes of variations
c) Chance causes of variations
d) Special causes of variations
75. ‘Assignment cause of variation’ in any manufacturing process can be easily traced and detected.
a) True
b) False
76. A stable process in any manufacturing process exhibits only ______
a) Assignable causes of variations
b) Special causes of variations
c) Chance cause of variations
d) A stable process cannot be predicted
77. What is not benchmarking?
a) Systematic search for best practices
b) Systematic search for innovative ideas
c) Systematic search for highly effective operating procedures
d) Systematic search for imitating competitors
78. The x
̅ -charts and R-charts monitor ____ and ____ of any manufacturing process.
a) Precision, accuracy
b) Accuracy, precision
c) Variation, accuracy
d) Precision, variation
79. The x
̅ -charts and R-charts are also known as ________ and _______ respectively.
a) average-charts, range-charts
b) median-charts, average-charts
c) range-charts, median-charts
d) median-charts, range-charts
80. Benchmarking is used by organizations as a ________ tool.
a) Intermittent improvement
b) Discontinuous improvement
c) Continuous improvement
d) Sporadic improvement
81. Benchmarking involves ________ between the performance level of the organization with its benchmark.
a) Increasing the gap
b) Reducing the gap
c) Opening the gap
d) Broadening the gap
82. Benchmarking is used extensively in __________
a) Manufacturing organizations only
b) Service organizations only
c) Manufacturing and service organizations
d) Government institutions only
83. Proper selection of the best-in-class for benchmarking is _______
a) Crucial
b) Doesn’t hold great importance
c) Least important
d) Not important
84. The product quality after using TQM philosophy _______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) We cannot comment on product quality
85. Which of the following is a tangible benefit of following TQM?
a) Reduction in employee grievances
b) Increase in employee grievances
c) No change in employee grievances
d) We can’t comment on employee grievances
86. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit of following TQM?
a) Better company image
b) Enhanced problem-solving capacity
c) Enhancement of job interest
d) Reduction in customer satisfaction
87. The working relationships after using TQM philosophy _______
a) Declines
b) Remains the same
c) Improves
d) We cannot comment on working relationships
88. Employee participation after using TQM philosophy _______
a) Declines
b) Remains the same
c) Improves
d) We cannot comment on working relationships
89 The process of involving yourself and influencing others towards the accomplishment of goals is called _______
a) Leadership
b) Dictatorship
c) Sportsmanship
d) Autocracy
90. Leaders use _______ to create a sustainable competitive advantage for their organization.
a) Ineffective strategy
b) Effective strategy
c) Papers
d) Media
91. Quality leaders give primary importance to ___________ and their needs.
a) Internal and external customers
b) Founder and co-founder
c) Founder and internal customer
d) Founder and external customer
92. Quality leaders focus on _____________ rather than maintenance.
a) Continuous improvement
b) Discontinuous improvement
c) Static improvement
d) Aesthetics
93 Quality Leaders _________ people rather than directing and supervising them.
a) Train and coach
b) Scold
c) Threaten
d) Fire
94. Quality leaders encourage _______ over ________ when we consider functions of various departments in a company.
a) Collaboration, competition
b) Competition, collaboration
c) Competition, threat
d) Threat, collaboration
95. The property that is possessed with a product and that is intended to meet certain customers’ needs and thereby provide customer
satisfaction is called _________
a) Product Tree
b) Product Feature
c) Product Cycle
d) Product Design
96.The two types of customers are ______ and ______
a) Founder, Co-founder
b) Internal, External
c) Government, People
d) CEO, CFO
97. Which of the following does not fit in the category of Internal Customers?
a) Stakeholders
b) Public
c) Shareholders
d) Employees of a company
98. The state of affairs in which customers feel that their expectations have been met by the product features is known as
______________
a) Customer Satisfaction
b) Customer Attraction
c) Customer Loyalty
d) Customer Reputation
99. Which of the following is not a measure of Product Deficiency?
a) Errors
b) Defects
c) Off-specification
d) Mass of the mobile phone
100. Who developed the concept of ‘TRIZ’?
a) GenrichAltshuller
b) Deming
c) Crosby
d) Juran
101. Which of the following is not an emotional based method for increasing innovation?
a) Brainstorming
b) Synectics
c) Lateral thinking
d) TRIZ
102. The quality of the product is substantially affected by _______
a) Supplier quality
b) Supplier fund
c) Supplier money
d) Supplier name
103. Who gave the ten principles for customer/supplier relations?
a) Ishikawa
b) Deming
c) Crosby
d) Taguchi
104. Which of the following business activities must be performed by customers and suppliers so that a friendly and satisfactory
relationship is maintained between them?
a) Procurement only
b) Production and inventory planning only
c) Clerical work and systems only
d) Procurement, production and inventory planning, clerical works and systems
105. Quality circle develops _______ awareness for safety.
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) No
d) Diminishing
ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(D), 4-(B), 5-(C), 6-(B), 7-(C), 8-(C), 9-(A), 10-(B), 11-(B), 12-(A), 13-(D), 14-(D), 15-(E), 16-(B), 17-(A), 18-(D), 19-(C),20-(A)
21-(B), 22-(D), 23-(C), 24-(A), 25-(D), 26-(C), 27-(D), 28-(B), 29-(A), 30-(A), 31-(A), 32-(C), 33-(B), 34-(C), 35-(A), 36-(D), 37-(B), 38-(D), 39-(C)
40-(B), 41-(C), 42-(D),43-(C), 44-(A), 45-(A), 46-(B), 47-(D), 48-(C), 49-(A), 50-(A), 51-(A), 52-(B), 53-(A), 54-(B), 55-(D), 56-(C), 57-(D),
58-(A),59-(C),60-(A), 61-(C), 62-(B), 63-(C), 64-(A), 65-(B), 66-(A), 67-(D), 68-(A),69-(D), 70-(A), 71-(D), 72-(A), 73-(D), 74-(D), 75-(A), 76-(C),
77-(D), 78-(B) ,79-(A),80-(C),81-(B), 82-(C), 83-(A), 84-(A), 85-(A), 86-(D), 87-(C), 88-(C), 89-(A), 90-(B), 91-(A), 92-(A), 93-(A), 94-(A), 95-(B),
96-(B), 97-(B), 98-(A),99-(D),100-(A),101-(D),102-(A),103-(A),104-(D),105-(A)
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  • 2. 10-“DMAIC” is used for projects aimed at (A) improving an existing business process (B) creating new product or process designs (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 11-In “DMAIC”, M stands for (A) Method (B) Measure (C) Machine (D) Manpower 12-Poka Yoke means (A) mistake proofing (B) standardization (C) process control (D) none of the above 13-The percentage yield in Six Sigma is (A) 93.3 (B) 99.38 C) 99.977 (D) 99.99966 14-Six Sigma is applicable to (A) Finance (B) Supply chain (C) Healthcare (D) All of the above 15. Six Sigma is a business-driven, multi-dimensional structured approach to A. Reducing process variability B. Increasing customer satisfaction C. Lowering Defects D. Improving Processes E. All of the above 16. Small/Mid-sized Six Sigma projects are executed by professionals titled as: A. Champion B. Green Belt C. Black Belt D. Site Champion 17. 1. Six Sigma follows the DMAIC model. a) True b) False View Answer 18. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Identification of project b) Identification of champion c) Identification of project owner d) Identification of founder of the business View Answer 19. Which of the following does not belong to the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Determination of customer requirements b) Determination of CTQs c) Validating the measurements d) Mapping the process 20. Defining the problem, objective, goals, and benefits belong to the ‘Define’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma. a) True b) False
  • 3. 21. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Define’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Project charter and plan b) Check sheet c) Effort/impact analysis d) Process mapping 22. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Measure’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Quality Function Deployment b) Measurement Systems Analysis c) Process capability d) Tree diagram 23. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Measure’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Determining operational definitions b) Establishing performance standards c) Developing the project plan d) Developing data collection and sample plan 24. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Analyze’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Quality Function Deployment b) Histogram c) Pareto Diagram d) Run chart 25. Which of the following is not part of the ‘Improve’ activity in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Determination of solution effectiveness using data b) Implementing solution c) Developing solution alternatives d) Closing project and communicating results 26. Which of the following is not a tool used in the ‘Improve’ process in the DMAIC Model of Six Sigma? a) Design of Experiments b) Brainstorming c) Statistical Process Control d) Failure Mode Effect Analysis 27. What does the letter ‘D’ and ‘V’ refer to in the DMADV model? a) Data, Verify b) Design, Validate c) Data, Validate d) Design, Verify 28. OCAP refers to ________ a) On Control Action Plan b) Out of Control Action Plan c) Out of Concern Action Plan d) Out of Control Assessment Plan 29. The Six Sigma model used for improving the existing process/product is _______ a) DMAIC b) DMAAD c) DMADV d) DMAAX 30. The approach of QFD in product design leads to customer-driven products. a) True b) False 31. QFD has a complete focus on the ‘voice of the customer’? a) True b) False 32. Which of the following is not a technique used to capture customer requirements for the QFD approach? a) Market surveys b) Customer surveys c) Cash receipt d) Customer complaints 33. Which tool is used to break down the complex customer needs into key customer needs in QFD approach? a) Voice of customers b) Affinity diagram c) Poka Yoke d) 5S 34. HOQ refers to _________ a) Headquarters b) High Quality
  • 4. c) House of Quality d) Head of Quality 35. What does the relationship matrix in the House of Quality represent? a) Correlation between customer requirements and technical descriptors b) Correlation between good and bad customers c) Correlation between the organization’s profit and loss d) Correlation between good and bad investors 36. Which of the following is not an item included in the prioritized customer requirements in the House of Quality? a) Customer importance rating b) Customer benchmarking c) Sales point d) Technical benchmarking 37. The interrelationship between technical descriptors in the House of Quality is given by _____ a) Relationship matrix b) Trade-off matrix c) Customer matrix d) Customer requirement matrix 38. The technical descriptors are the ________ a) Voice of the customer b) Voice of the manager c) Voice of the owner d) Voice of the organization 39. In which part of the House of Quality ‘product design characteristics’ can be located? a) Customer requirements b) Prioritized customer requirements c) Technical descriptors d) Prioritized technical descriptors 40. In which part of the House of Quality ‘degree of technical difficulty’ can be located? a) Customer requirements b) Prioritized customer requirements c) Technical descriptors d) Prioritized technical descriptors 41. TQM is the management approach of an organization, centered on quality, based on the participation of all its members and aiming at long-term success through customer satisfaction, and benefits to all members of the organization and to society. Which organization had given this definition of TQM? a) Total Quality Forum of USA b) Indian Statistical Institute c) ISO d) ASQ 42. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ is referred to when the study of customer needs is done, the requirements of the customer are gathered, and customer satisfaction is measured and managed? a) Process Management b) Employee Empowerment c) Continuous Improvement d) Customer Focus 43. Which ‘pillar of TQM’ recognizes that product quality is a result of process quality? a) Process Management b) Employee Empowerment c) Continuous Improvement d) Customer Focus 44. In traditional management, quality is determined by the company. In total quality management, quality is determined by the customer. a) True b) False 45. To anticipate failures and prevent them from happening is the objective of FMEA. a) True b) False 46. What is RPN? a) Risk Potential Number b) Risk Priority Number c) Risk Preference number d) Risk Preventive Number
  • 5. 47. Find the odd one out related to the FMEA team. a) Assembly engineer b) Manufacturing engineer c) Quality engineer d) Process variability data 48. A particular product has been given the following rankings for calculating RPN while preparing FMEA chart, S=10, O=2, D=2. What is the value of RPN? a) 20 b) 10 c) 40 d) 2 49. There are four stages of FMEA. i) Specifyingthe possibilities ii) Quantifying risk iii) Correcting high risk causes iv) Re-evaluation of Risk Which is the correct order of proceeding with these stages of FMEA? a) i),ii),iii),iv) b) i),ii),iv),iii) c) iv),iii),i),ii) d) iv),iii),ii),i) 50. Who is the father of Toyota Production System (TPS)? a) Ohno b) Deming c) Crosby d) Taguchi 51. ‘Muda’ refers to waste in Japan. a) True b) False 52. Mura and Muri refer to _____ and _____ respectively. a) Unevenness, waste b) Unevenness, overburden c) Overburden, waste d) Overburden, poka-yoke 53. Muda Type 1 refers to non-value-added activities in the processes that are important for the end customer. a) True b) False 54. Which of the following terms in the seven types of wastes categorized by Ohno considers the waiting of one process to begin while the other one gets over? a) Overproduction b) Waiting c) Transportation d) Excessive inventory 55. Which of the following means ‘visual cards’? a) Poka-yoke b) 5S c) Muda d) Kanban 56. C-Kanban is also known as _______ a) P- Kanban b) Production Kanban c) Withdrawal Kanban d) Poka-Yoke 57. Which of the following does not belong to the five principles of lean? a) Identifying Value b) Mapping the value stream c) Creating flow d) Establishing push 58. In the jargon of statistical process control, USL and LSL are known as _______ and _____ respectively. a) Upper specification limit, Lower specification limit b) Upper specification limit, Limit specification limit
  • 6. c) Up specification limit, Limit specification limit d) Up specification limit, Lower specification limit 59. Specification limits are also known as ________ of the product. a) Mode b) Median c) Tolerances d) Allowances 60. If a product falls in the range of USL-LSL then it is meeting the expectation of the customer. a) True b) False 61. Natural tolerance is also known as _______ a) Specification limits b) Control limit c) Process capability d) Mean 62. What is the interpretation of Cp>1? a) The process cannot meet the specification b) The process will meet the specification c) The process is just meeting the specification d) No interpretation is possible 63. What is the interpretation of Cpk=Cp? a) The process is out of control b) The process is customer-centric c) The process is centered d) The process is costly 64. 5S is defined as a housekeeping technique used to establish and maintain a productive and quality environment in an organization. a) True b) False 65. In which country was 5S invented? a) India b) Japan c) Vietnam d) Norway 66. What is the English equivalent of the Japanese word ‘Seiri’? a) Sorting out b) Systematic arrangement c) Standardizing d) Self-discipline 67. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing 5S technique? a) To improve work efficiency b) To standardize work practices c) To improve work discipline d) To create a dirty workplace 68. Process deployment flow is another term for ________ a) Flow chart b) Matrices c) Determinants d) Arrows 69. Tally sheet is another term for _______ a) Flow chart b) Matrices c) Determinants d) Checksheets 70. The type of checksheet used to collect information on process variability is called ________ a) Process distribution check sheet b) Defective item check sheet c) Defect location check sheet d) Defect factor check sheet 71. The type of check sheet used to monitor the input parameters that can affect the occurrence of defects in a process is called _________ a) Process distribution check sheet b) Defective item check sheet
  • 7. c) Defect location check sheet d) Defect factor check sheet 72. ‘Random causes of variations’ in any manufacturing process are inevitable. a) True b) False 73. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the occurrence of ‘random causes of variation’ in any manufacturing process? a) Human variability b) Minor variations in raw materials c) Working conditions fluctuations d) Differences among machines 74. ‘Assignment causes of variation’ of any manufacturing process are also known as _______ a) Random causes of variations b) Common causes of variations c) Chance causes of variations d) Special causes of variations 75. ‘Assignment cause of variation’ in any manufacturing process can be easily traced and detected. a) True b) False 76. A stable process in any manufacturing process exhibits only ______ a) Assignable causes of variations b) Special causes of variations c) Chance cause of variations d) A stable process cannot be predicted 77. What is not benchmarking? a) Systematic search for best practices b) Systematic search for innovative ideas c) Systematic search for highly effective operating procedures d) Systematic search for imitating competitors 78. The x ̅ -charts and R-charts monitor ____ and ____ of any manufacturing process. a) Precision, accuracy b) Accuracy, precision c) Variation, accuracy d) Precision, variation 79. The x ̅ -charts and R-charts are also known as ________ and _______ respectively. a) average-charts, range-charts b) median-charts, average-charts c) range-charts, median-charts d) median-charts, range-charts 80. Benchmarking is used by organizations as a ________ tool. a) Intermittent improvement b) Discontinuous improvement c) Continuous improvement d) Sporadic improvement 81. Benchmarking involves ________ between the performance level of the organization with its benchmark. a) Increasing the gap b) Reducing the gap c) Opening the gap d) Broadening the gap 82. Benchmarking is used extensively in __________ a) Manufacturing organizations only b) Service organizations only c) Manufacturing and service organizations d) Government institutions only 83. Proper selection of the best-in-class for benchmarking is _______ a) Crucial b) Doesn’t hold great importance c) Least important d) Not important 84. The product quality after using TQM philosophy _______ a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) We cannot comment on product quality
  • 8. 85. Which of the following is a tangible benefit of following TQM? a) Reduction in employee grievances b) Increase in employee grievances c) No change in employee grievances d) We can’t comment on employee grievances 86. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit of following TQM? a) Better company image b) Enhanced problem-solving capacity c) Enhancement of job interest d) Reduction in customer satisfaction 87. The working relationships after using TQM philosophy _______ a) Declines b) Remains the same c) Improves d) We cannot comment on working relationships 88. Employee participation after using TQM philosophy _______ a) Declines b) Remains the same c) Improves d) We cannot comment on working relationships 89 The process of involving yourself and influencing others towards the accomplishment of goals is called _______ a) Leadership b) Dictatorship c) Sportsmanship d) Autocracy 90. Leaders use _______ to create a sustainable competitive advantage for their organization. a) Ineffective strategy b) Effective strategy c) Papers d) Media 91. Quality leaders give primary importance to ___________ and their needs. a) Internal and external customers b) Founder and co-founder c) Founder and internal customer d) Founder and external customer 92. Quality leaders focus on _____________ rather than maintenance. a) Continuous improvement b) Discontinuous improvement c) Static improvement d) Aesthetics 93 Quality Leaders _________ people rather than directing and supervising them. a) Train and coach b) Scold c) Threaten d) Fire 94. Quality leaders encourage _______ over ________ when we consider functions of various departments in a company. a) Collaboration, competition b) Competition, collaboration c) Competition, threat d) Threat, collaboration 95. The property that is possessed with a product and that is intended to meet certain customers’ needs and thereby provide customer satisfaction is called _________ a) Product Tree b) Product Feature c) Product Cycle d) Product Design 96.The two types of customers are ______ and ______ a) Founder, Co-founder b) Internal, External c) Government, People d) CEO, CFO 97. Which of the following does not fit in the category of Internal Customers? a) Stakeholders b) Public
  • 9. c) Shareholders d) Employees of a company 98. The state of affairs in which customers feel that their expectations have been met by the product features is known as ______________ a) Customer Satisfaction b) Customer Attraction c) Customer Loyalty d) Customer Reputation 99. Which of the following is not a measure of Product Deficiency? a) Errors b) Defects c) Off-specification d) Mass of the mobile phone 100. Who developed the concept of ‘TRIZ’? a) GenrichAltshuller b) Deming c) Crosby d) Juran 101. Which of the following is not an emotional based method for increasing innovation? a) Brainstorming b) Synectics c) Lateral thinking d) TRIZ 102. The quality of the product is substantially affected by _______ a) Supplier quality b) Supplier fund c) Supplier money d) Supplier name 103. Who gave the ten principles for customer/supplier relations? a) Ishikawa b) Deming c) Crosby d) Taguchi 104. Which of the following business activities must be performed by customers and suppliers so that a friendly and satisfactory relationship is maintained between them? a) Procurement only b) Production and inventory planning only c) Clerical work and systems only d) Procurement, production and inventory planning, clerical works and systems 105. Quality circle develops _______ awareness for safety. a) Greater b) Lesser c) No d) Diminishing ANSWERS: 1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(D), 4-(B), 5-(C), 6-(B), 7-(C), 8-(C), 9-(A), 10-(B), 11-(B), 12-(A), 13-(D), 14-(D), 15-(E), 16-(B), 17-(A), 18-(D), 19-(C),20-(A) 21-(B), 22-(D), 23-(C), 24-(A), 25-(D), 26-(C), 27-(D), 28-(B), 29-(A), 30-(A), 31-(A), 32-(C), 33-(B), 34-(C), 35-(A), 36-(D), 37-(B), 38-(D), 39-(C) 40-(B), 41-(C), 42-(D),43-(C), 44-(A), 45-(A), 46-(B), 47-(D), 48-(C), 49-(A), 50-(A), 51-(A), 52-(B), 53-(A), 54-(B), 55-(D), 56-(C), 57-(D), 58-(A),59-(C),60-(A), 61-(C), 62-(B), 63-(C), 64-(A), 65-(B), 66-(A), 67-(D), 68-(A),69-(D), 70-(A), 71-(D), 72-(A), 73-(D), 74-(D), 75-(A), 76-(C), 77-(D), 78-(B) ,79-(A),80-(C),81-(B), 82-(C), 83-(A), 84-(A), 85-(A), 86-(D), 87-(C), 88-(C), 89-(A), 90-(B), 91-(A), 92-(A), 93-(A), 94-(A), 95-(B), 96-(B), 97-(B), 98-(A),99-(D),100-(A),101-(D),102-(A),103-(A),104-(D),105-(A)