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Total Quality Management
Q1. In Total Quality Management, what does the ‘Quality’ word mean?
a) Degree of excellence a product or service
b) Degree of performance
c) Degree of work`
d) Strength of the company
Q2. Quality can be quantified as :
a) Q = P % E
b) Q = P / E
c) Q = P * E
d) None Where P = Performance, and E = Expectations
Q3. What could be the dimension of Quality?
a) Conformance
b) Durability
c) Aesthetics
d) All above
Q4. An effective TQM program is often referred to as :
a) Listening to the voice of consumers
b) Listening to the voice of customers

2. c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q5. The most important consideration of an effective TQM is
a) Maximize profit
b) Provide high quality
c) Customer satisfaction
d) Minimize expenses
Q6. Who said this, “Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit
there.”a) Will Rogers
b) Shewhart
c) Joseph M. Juran
d) Phillip B. Crosby
Q7. “……………….” is we, not me; mission, not my show; vision, not division; and
community, Not domicile.”
a) Democracy
b) Membership
c) Management
d) Leadership
Q8. Knowledge is what to do; the desire is the motivation or wants to do; and the skill is
the…..
a) When to do?
b) How to do?
c) What to do
d) None

3. Q9. A body of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behavior of
individuals & organizations.
a) Synergy
b) Ethics
c) Conduct
d) Nature
Q10. Quality is judged by
a) Manager
b) Director
c) Government
d) Customers
Q11. A desired future stage of an organization is
a) Policies
b) Mission
c) Value
d) Vision
Q12. A customer could be
a) Internal
b) External
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q13. A particular tool for obtaining opinions & perceptions about organizations its
products & services.
a) Customer questionnaire

4. b) Personal interview
c) Telephonic interview
d) All above
Q14. Clients are the people for whom the company doing the survey, and customers are
the ones
a) Who checks the product or services
b) Who use the product or services
c) Who takes the information about product
d) None
Q15. 90% of all customers contact comes through an organization’s
a) Front – line employees
b) Back – line employees
c) Manager
d) Director
Q16. The connection between customers satisfaction and the bottom line is
a) Customer interest
b) Customer retention
c) Customer requirement
d) None
Q17. A useful tool which provides information to improve processes an establish realistic
goals
a) SERVQUAL
b) Quality function deployment
c) Gap analysis

5. d) None
Q18. Who said, “Customer don’t buy products, they buy result.”
a) Joseph J. Juran
b) Phillip B. Crosby
c) Peter Drucker
d) Will Rogers
Q19. A document that defines the team’s mission, boundaries, the background of the
problem, team’s authority, duties and resources.
a) Sponsor
b) Team charter
c) Team manager
d) Team leader
Q20. When one person proposes a decision and another agrees, we have the
a) Non-decision
b) Minority rule decision
c) Unilateral decision
d) Handclasp decision
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Q21. Item that includes a process, such as brainstorming, affinity diagram, discussion,
the presenters and times guidelines is
a) Company’s logo
b) Company’s Name
c) An agenda
d) Moto

6. Q22. The most difficult stage as members start to realize the amount of works that lies
ahead is
a) Forming
b) Worming
c) Performing
d) Storming
Q23. The S.T.A.R. = ‘Suggestions’, ‘Team’, ‘Actions’, ‘…………..’.
a) Response
b) Reliability
c) Results
d) None
Q24. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the
competitive world is
a) Change
b) Repair
c) Revenue
d) None
Q25. The planning component of process involvement begins with
a) Internal customers
b) External customers
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q26. Which problem occurs, when a structured system having standardized inputs,
processes, and outputs is performing unacceptably from the user’s view point?

7. a) Unstructured problems
b) Product design problems
c) Compliance problems
d) Process design problems
Q27. PDSA stands for
a) Plan – Do – Study – Act
b) Process Development Structured Analysis
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q28. Kaizen improvement focuses on which principle to produce only the units in the
right quantities, at the right time, and with the right resources.
a) Do – it – fast
b) Just – in –time
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q29. The Greek symbol for the statistical measurement of dispersion called standard
deviation
a) α
b) β
c) λ
d) σ
Q30. Competency levels of six sigma individuals use the Karate designations of
a) Green Belt
b) Black Belt

8. c) Master Black Belt
d) All above
Q31. The key element to a partnering relationship is
a) Long – term commitment
b) Trust
c) Shared vision
d) All above
Q32. Sourcing, which is the use of two or more suppliers for an item is
a) Sole sourcing
b) Multiple sourcing
c) Single sourcing
d) None
Q33. The fourth and final phase, i.e., identity check occurs
a) When the customers perform identity checks
b) When the suppliers perform identity checks
c) When both the customers & suppliers perform identity checks
d) None
Q34. A supplier rating system is based on
a) Quality
b) Delivery
c) Service
d) All above
Q35. The score of a supplier can be calculated as

9. a) Performance matrix * price index
b) Target price * actual price
c) Performance matrix * actual price
d) None
Q36. OEMs must maintain supply chain development through
a) Zero defects
b) 100 % on time delivery
c) A process for continuous improvement
d) All above
Q37. A technique of ‘Performing Measure Presentation’ benchmarks the process &
shows favorable & unfavorable trends in the measure
a) Control chart
b) Time service graph
c) Capability index
d) Cost of poor quality
Q38. Costs can generally be considered the cost incurred for the inspection and/or test
of purchased suppliers or service to determine acceptability for use.
a) Operations appraisal costs
b) External appraisal costs
c) Miscellaneous quality evaluations
d) Purchasing appraisal costs
Q39. Purchasing failure cost are incurred due to
a) Defected item rejects
b) Purchased item rejects

10. c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q40. The efficiency of a business is measured in terms of
a) Rupees
b) Paisa
c) Dollars
d) Pound
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Q41. An annual award to recognize U.S. organizations for performance excellence
a) Golden Peacock Award
b) IMC Ramakrishna Bajaj National Award
c) Malcolm Baldrige National Award
d) None
Q42. In the implementation of a quality cost program, to determine if the program can
be beneficial to the organization is
a) Last step
b) First step
c) Second step
d) None
Q43. An increasingly popular tool, used extensively by both manufacturing & service
organizations, including Xerox, AT&T, Motorola, Ford & Toyota to reach at a target
point
a) SERQUAL
b) Benchmarking

11. c) QFD
d) QC
Q44. When deciding what to benchmark, it is best to begin by thinking about the
a) Mission and vision
b) Vision and critical success factors
c) Vision
d) Mission and critical success factors
Q45. Benchmarking can be
a) Internal
b) Competitive
c) Process
d) All above
Q46. Technique of conducting original research is
a) Questionnaires
b) Site visits
c) Focus on groups
d) All above
Q47. Benchmarking is waste of time, if
a) Change does not occur as a result
b) Change occurs a result
c) There is no achievement
d) Can’t say
Q48. E – learning is offered in a variety of formats such as

12. a) CD – ROM based
b) LAN based
c) Web based
d) All above
Q49. The International Organization for Standardizations (ISO) was founded in Geneva,
Switzerland, in
a) 1952
b) 1948
c) 1961
d) 1946
Q50. The current quality system is
a) AS9100
b) ISO / TS 16949
c) TL 9000
d) All above
Q51. The supply chain is defined as
a) Suppliers → Organization → Customers
b) Organization → Suppliers → Customers
c) Suppliers → Customers → Organization
d) Organization → Customers → Suppliers
Q52. Which is not a step of ‘Implementation’ of a Quality Management System?
a) Top Management Commitment
b) Appoint an implementation team

13. c) Writing the documents
d) Appoint the management representatives
Q53. Technical committee 207 (TC 207) is formed by
a) RAB
b) SAGE
c) ASQ
d) None
Q54. What is the global benefit of environmental management system?
a) Facilitate & remove trade barriers
b) Improve environmental performance of planet earth
c) Build consensus
d) All above
Q55. ‘Closely knit’ describes
a) TNC’s eternal relationship
b) TNC’s internal relationship
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q56. ………………, a golf equipment manufacturer recently was certified to both ISO
9000 & ISO 14000.
a) Escorts
b) Hyundai
c) Ping
d) Tata

14. Q57. To ensure that EMS conforms to plans & is being properly implemented &
maintained, is the purpose of
a) Records
b) EMS Audit
c) Monitoring & Measuring
d) Nonconformance & Corrective
Q58. The Quality Function Deployment uses, to express information
a) Algebric values
b) Numeric values
c) Alphanumeric values
d) None
Q59. Quality Function deployment is a planning tool used to
a) Maximizing the profit
b) Minimizing the expenses
c) Fulfill customer expectations
d) Making goodwill
Q60. Which source of customers describes their expectations?
a) Voice of customers
b) Actions of customers
c) Nature of customers
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Q61. Which method is well suited for gathering a large amount of data?
a) Interrelationship diagram

15. b) Tree diagrams
c) Cause – and – Effect diagrams
d) All above
Q62. The primary planning tool used in QFD is
a) QC
b) Gap Analysis
c) Benchmarking
d) HOQ
Q63. The absolute weight is calculated by
a) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)*(sales points)
b) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)
c) AW = (scale up factor)*(sales points)
d) None
Q64. Why the term ‘Sequential Engineering’ is used?
a) To describe the profit
b) To describe the process
c) To describe the performance
d) To describe the quality
Q65. The benefit of Quality by Design techniques is
a) Faster production development
b) Better quality
c) Less work in progress
d) All above

16. Q66. Tools which are mostly used in quality be design technique
a) CAD
b) CAM
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q67. A software which provides a means for individuals to communicate their opinions
within a group in a structured & creative manner is
a) Enterprise resource planning software
b) Product data management software
c) Electronic meeting software
d) None
Q68. The finite element analysis software packages are3 widely regarded as the most
powerful tool available for
a) A design engineer
b) Documentation
c) Production
d) All above
Q69. FMEA. Is an analytical technique to identify foreseeable failure modes of a product
or process & plan for their elimination stands for
a) Failure Modification & Effect Analysis
b) Foreign Money Exchange and Analysis
c) Failure Mode & Effect Analysis
d) None
Q70. The type of FMEA is

17. a) Design FMEA
b) Process FMEA
c) Equipment FMEA
d) All above
Q70. The type of FMEA is
a) Design FMEA
b) Process FMEA
c) Equipment FMEA
d) All above
Q71. How many stages of FMEA?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
Q72. The effective of failure as perceived by the customer are called
a) Minor effect(s) of failure
b) Potential effect(s) of failure
c) High effe4ct(s) of failure
d) All above
Q73. Which section of the document is a relative of the assessment of the ability of the
design control to detect either a potential cause or the subsequent failure mode before
the component, sub system, or system is completed for production.
a) Occurrence(O)
b) Classification (CLASS)

18. c) Detection (D)
d) Security (S)
Q74. The concept ‘Caveat Emptor’, that resulted from Adam Smith’s “invisible Hand”
theory of commercial regulation, means
a) Let the buyers beware
b) Let the seller beware
c) Let the consumer beware
d) Let the government beware
Q75. The first requirement of an expert technical witness is to be ……………………… in the
area of testimony.
a) Non – technical
b) Perfect
c) Technically competent
d) Knowledgeable
Q76. Technique, which is a product safety design technique is
a) Fault free analysis
b) Fail – safe concepts
c) Coded identifications for traceability
d) All above
Q77. If the product is referred to as “safe” & a person is injured that action establishes
that the product is
a) Good
b) Best
c) Defective
d) Not safe

19. Q78. A communication between market place and the organization concerning the
performance of the product is
a) A complaint
b) A claim
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Q79. An adequate prevention program can substantially reduce the risk of damaging
litigation. This statement is as same as proverb
a) A ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
b) Barking dogs seldom bite
c) Old is gold
d) Two birds with single stone
Q80. The goal of TPM is
a) Maintaining & improving equipment capacity
b) Maintaining equipment for life
c) Encouraging input from all employees
d) All above
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Q81. Operating time can be calculated as
a) T = P + D
b) T = D – P
c) T = P – D
d) T = P * D Where P = Planned operating time, D = Downtime

20. Q82. A tool, which could be a key to finding the root cause of a problem by focusing on
the process rather than on people is
a) Brain storming
b) Why Why tool
c) CAM
d) Tree Diagram
Q83. A tool, which is used to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of details
in order to achieve the objective is
a) Matrix Diagram
b) Tree Diagram
c) Brain storming
d) Why Why tool
Q84. Prioritization matrices based on weighted criteria using a combination of
a) Tree & Matrix Diagram
b) Tree & Affinity Diagram
c) Affinity & Matrix Diagram
d) Brainstorming & Why Why Tool
Q85. The tool which can be used in a wide variety of situations and are simple to use by
individuals and / or teams is
a) Why Why tool
b) Forced Field Analysis
c) Nominal Group Technique
d) All above
Q86. The activity network diagram is also known as

21. a) PERT
b) CPM
c) Arrow diagram
d) All above
Q87. PDPC stands for
a) Process Decision Program Chart
b) Practice Decision Program Chart
c) Process Development
d) Path Decision Process Chart
Q88. A Pareto diagram is a
a) Ending Process
b) Critical Process
c) Never Ending Process
d) Easy Process
Q89. Diagrams, which are used to investigate either a “bad” effect and to take action to
correct the cause that are effect & to learn those causes that are responsible
a) Pareto diagrams
b) Tree diagrams
c) PERT diagrams
d) Cause & Effect diagrams
Q90. Which is the first “statistical” SPC technique?
a) Histogram
b) Ungrouped Data
c) Check Sheets

22. d) None
Q91. An arrangement of raw numerical data in ascending or descending order of
magnitude is
a) Structure
b) Link List
c) Queue
d) Array
Q92. Statistics is defined as the science that deals with
a) Collection
b) Tabulation
c) Presentation
d) All above
Q93. Which tool of statistics describes how the data are spread out or scattered on which
each side of central value?
a) Measures of dispersion
b) Forced field analysis
c) Nominal group technique
d) Tree diagram
Q94. Experimental design can be used to
a) Improve a process by increasing its performance and Eliminate troubles
b) Identify the variables to control the process
c) Improve an existing product or develop a new product
d) All above

23. Q95. A statistical decision making process in which inferences are made about the
population from a sample is
a) Hypothesis Testing
b) Orthogonal Design
c) t- reference Distribution
d) None
Q96. What does the word ‘Orthogonal’ mean?
a) The final product is experimented
b) The design of the actual product is based
c) The experimental design is balanced
d) None
Q97. In any statistical study, analysis & calculations yield a single point or value, which
is called a
a) Point estimate
b) Analytical point
c) Full factor
d) None
Q98. Which is a stage of product development?
a) Process design
b) Product design
c) Production
d) All above
Q99. Which is the fundamental part of the Taguchi approach?
a) Iron casting

24. b) Grill
c) Parameter design
d) Confirmation run
Q100. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in
the competitive world is called
a) Change
b) Renewal
c) Enhancement
d) None
Need Answer Sheet of this Question paper, contact
aravind.banakar@gmail.com
www.mbacasestudyanswers.com
ARAVIND – 09901366442 – 09902787224