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1 P.T.O.J—8709
Time : 1¼ hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature)
(Name)
2. (Signature)
(Name)
Roll No.
(In words)
Test Booklet No.
RollNo.
(In figures as per admission card)
PAPER—II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND
APPLICATIONS
J—8709
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it
as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not
accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept
an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question
booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the
OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test
Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated
below on the correct response against each item.
Example : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer
Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only. If you mark
at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it
will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the
test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR
Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the
examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you
outside the Examination Hall.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is NO negative marking.
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SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U–
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©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹Uı≈UÊ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ŒÍ‚⁄UË ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
‹ ‹¢– U ß‚∑§ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑§ ’ÊŒ Ÿ
ÃÙ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê flʬ‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄U Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑§Ù
•ÁÃÁ⁄UQ§ ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
(iii) ß‚ ¡Ê°ø ∑§ ’ÊŒ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ë R§◊ ‚¢ÅÿÊ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U
•¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¢U •Uı⁄U OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ë R§◊§‚¢ÅÿÊ ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U
•¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄U Œ¢–
4. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬ (A), (B), (C) ÃÕÊ (D) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢–
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ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ — A B C D
¡’Á∑§ (C) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U „Ò–
5. ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹U ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬òÊI ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „Ë •¢Á∑§Ã
∑§⁄UŸ „Ò¢– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ŒËÉʸflÎûÊ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ
SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áøã„Ê¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò, ÃÙ ©‚∑§Ê ◊ÍÀUÿÊ¢∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¢ „٪ʖ
6. •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑§Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬…∏¢U–
7. ∑§ìÊÊ ∑§Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ∑§⁄¢U–
8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊ ÿÊ ∞‚Ê ∑§Ù߸ ÷Ë ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑§Ë
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Á‹ÿ •ÿÙÇÿ ÉÊÙÁ·Ã ∑§⁄U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª–
9. •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ §¬⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ OMR ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§
◊„ÙŒÿ ∑§Ù ‹Uı≈UÊŸÊ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò •ı⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U Ÿ ‹∑§⁄U ¡Êÿ¢–
10. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹ / ∑§Ê‹ ’Ê‹U åflÊßZ≈U ¬ÒŸ ∑§Ê „Ë ßSÃ◊Ê‹ ∑§⁄¢U–
11. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑§ (∑Ò§‹∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U) UÿÊ ‹Êª ≈U’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑§Ê
¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ •¢∑§ Ÿ„Ë¢ ∑§Ê≈U ¡Êÿ¢ª–
OMR Sheet No. : ......................................................
(To be filled by the Candidate)
JUNE 2009
2J—8709
Computer Science and Applications
PAPER—II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective-type questions, each question carrying
two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
1. If x and y are independent Gaussian random variables with average value 0 and with
same variance, their joint probability density function is given by :
(A) p(x, y)5p(x).p(y) (B) p(x, y)5p(x)1p(y)
(C) p(x, y)5p(x1y) (D) p(x, y)5p(x).p(y)1p(x)
2. In order that a code is ‘t’ error correcting, the minimum Hamming distance should be :
(A) t (B) 2t21 (C) 2t (D) 2t11
3. The Boolean expression zxzyzyx 11 is equivalent to :
(A) x (B) y (C) z (D) x1y1z
4. The characteristic equation of a JK flip flop is :
(A) Qn115J.Qn1K.Qn (B) Qn115J. Q n1 K .Qn
(C) Qn115Qn J.K (D) Qn115(J1k)Qn
5. In order to implement a n variable switching function, a MUX must have :
(A) 2n inputs (B) 2n11 inputs (C) 2n21 inputs (D) 2n21 inputs
6. The throughput of pure ALOHA is given by :
(A) S5G (B) S5e2G (C) S5Ge2G (D) S5Ge22G
7. The Fiber Distributed Data Interface uses :
(A) single mode fibers and LEDs (B) multimode fibers and LEDs
(C) single mode fibers and ILDs (D) multimode fibers and ILDs
8. To employ multi-access in GSM, users are given different :
(A) time slots (B) bandpass filters
(C) handsets (D) frequency bands
9. With a four programs in memory and with 80% average I/O wait, the CPU utilization
is ?
(A) 60% (B) 70% (C) 90% (D) 100%
10. Assume N segments in memory and a page size of P bytes. The wastage on account of
internal fragmentation is :
(A) NP/2 bytes (B) P/2 bytes (C) N/2 bytes (D) NP bytes
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
3 P.T.O.J—8709
11. Assertion (A) : Bit maps are not often used in memory management.
Reason (R) : Searching a bit map for a run of given length is a slow operation.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
(C) (A) is true (R) is false
(D) (A) is false (R) is true
12. The complete graph with four vertices has k edges where k is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
13. The octal equivalent of hexadecimal (A.B)16 is :
(A) 47.21 (B) 12.74 (C) 12.71 (D) 17.21
14. A reduced state table has 18 rows. The minimum number of Flips flops needed to
implement the sequential machine is :
(A) 18 (B) 9 (C) 5 (D) 4
15. What is the value of ‘b’ after the execution of the following code statements :
c510;
b511c111c;
(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) None
16. Which of the following does not represent a valid storage class in ‘c’ ?
(A) automatic (B) static (C) union (D) extern
17. The friend functions are used in situations where :
(A) We want to have access to unrelated classes
(B) Dynamic binding is required
(C) Exchange of data between classes to take place
(D) None of the above
18. (i) DML includes a query language based on both relation algebra and tuple calculus
(ii) DML includes a query language based on tuple calculus
(iii) DML includes a query language based on relational algebra
(iv) DML includes a query language based on none of the relational algebra and tuple
calculus
Which one is correct ?
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
19. Suppose it takes 100 ns to access a page table and 20 ns to access associative memory
with a 90% hit rate, the average access time equals :
(A) 20 ns (B) 28 ns (C) 90 ns (D) 100 ns
20. There exists a construct which returns a value ‘true’ if the argument subquery is :
(A) empty (B) non-empty
(C) in error (D) none of the above
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
4J—8709
21. Which construct in SQL is used to test whether a subquery has any tuples in its result ?
(A) UNIQUE (B) EXISTS (C) GROUP BY (D) EXCEPT
22. ORACLE supports :
(A) inner join and outer join only
(B) outer join and semi join only
(C) inner join, outer join, semi join only
(D) inner join, outer join, semi join and anti join
23. Which two of the following are equivalent for an undirected graph G ?
(i) G is a tree
(ii) There is at least one path between any two distinct vertices of G
(iii) G contains no cycles and has (n21) edges
(iv) G has n edges
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
24. In a B tree of order m with p nodes the average number of splits is at most :
(A) 









1
2
1
2
m
(B) 









1
2
2
m
(C) 



2
1
m
(D) None
25. The propositional formula given by the tree :
is :
(A) 1112 xxxx ¬¬∨∨∧ (B) )()( 2122 xxxx ∨∧∨ ¬
(C) )()( 2121 xxxx ∨∧∨ ¬¬ (D) None
26. Queue is a __________ list.
(A) LIFO (B) LILO (C) FILO (D) FIFO
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
5 P.T.O.J—8709
27. In a full binary tree of height k, there are __________ internal nodes.
(A) 2k21 (B) 2k21 (C) 2k (D) 2k11
28. A binary tree is said to have heap property if the elements along any path :
(A) from leaf to root are non–increasing
(B) from leaf to root are non–decreasing
(C) from root to leaf are non–decreasing
(D) from root to leaf are non–increasing
29. X.25 protocol consists of :
(A) Physical and Frame levels (B) Frame and Packet levels
(C) Physical, Frame and Packet levels (D) None of the above
30. GSM/CDMA systems :
(A) are limited to very low speed data(B) require no local loop wires
(C) are predominantly used for voice (D) all of the above
31. Usually information security in a network is achieved by :
(A) Layering (B) Cryptography
(C) Grade of service (D) None of the above
32 The linker :
(A) is similar to interpreter
(B) uses source code as its input
(C) is required to create a load module
(D) none of the above
33. In which addressing mode the operand is given explicitly in the instruction itself ?
(A) Absolute mode (B) Immediate mode
(C) Indirect mode (D) Index mode
34. A compiler that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine is
called :
(A) Cross compilation (B) One pass compilation
(C) Two pass compilation (D) None of the above
35. Any syntactic construct that can be described by a regular expression can also be described
by a :
(A) Context sensitive grammar (B) Non context free grammar
(C) Context free grammar (D) None of the above
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
6J—8709
36. Find the odd man out :
(A) tail (B) cut (C) wart (D) sed
37. Which of the following changes permission to deny write permission to group and
others ?
(A) Chmod go2w filex (B) Chmod go w filex
(C) Chmod go5w filex (D) None of the above
38. Variable partition memory management technique with compaction results in :
(A) Reduction of fragmentation
(B) Minimal wastage
(C) Segment sharing
(D) None of the above
39. Capability Maturity Model is meant for :
(A) Product (B) Process
(C) Product and Process (D) None of the above
40. In the light of software engineering software consists of :
(A) Programs (B) Data
(C) Documentation (D) All of the above
41. Which one of the following ISO standard is used for software process ?
(A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001 (C) ISO 9003 (D) ISO 9000–3
42. Which of the following is used for test data generation ?
(A) White Box (B) Black Box
(C) Boundary–value analysis (D) All of the above
43. Reverse engineering is the process which deals with :
(A) Size measurement (B) Cost measurement
(C) Design recovery (D) All of the above
44. The spacing between character pairs is called :
(A) kerning (B) x-height (C) intercap (D) serif
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
7 P.T.O.J—8709
45. When compared with analog cellular systems, an advantage of digital TDMA cellular
system is that :
(A) it is less complicated
(B) it requires less of computer memory
(C) it conserves spectrum bandwidth
(D) it costs less
46. E–commerce includes :
(A) B2C (B) B2B
(C) C2C (D) All of the above
47. A clustering technique that permits a convenient graphical display is :
(A) partition based clustering
(B) probabilistic model based clustering
(C) hierarchical clustering
(D) agglomerative clustering
48. After sending a message ,the sender should not be able to, at a later date, deny having
sent the message, is referred to as :
(A) Authenticity (B) Non–Repudiability
(C) Auditability (D) Repudiability
49. The device which connects dissimilar LANs of different topologies using different sets
of communication protocols so that information can flow from one to another is called :
(A) Router (B) Bridge (C) Gateway (D) Switch
50. We can not delete the __________ icon but we can made it invisible.
(A) Recycle (B) My computer
(C) Internet explorer (D) None of the above
- o O o -
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
8J—8709
Space For Rough Work

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UGC NET COMPUTER SCIENCE JUNE 2009 PAPER-II

  • 1. 1 P.T.O.J—8709 Time : 1¼ hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) (Name) 2. (Signature) (Name) Roll No. (In words) Test Booklet No. RollNo. (In figures as per admission card) PAPER—II COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS J—8709 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is NO negative marking. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê 1. ¬„‹U ¬ÎDU ∑§ ™§¬⁄U ÁŸÿà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •¬ŸÊ ⁄UÙ‹U Ÿê’⁄U Á‹Áπ∞– 2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ¬øÊ‚ ’„ÈÁfl∑§À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¢– 3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄êU÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄U, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •Ê¬∑§Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹U ¬UÊ°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑§Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ¡Ê°ø ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª Á¡‚∑§Ë ¡Ê°ø •Ê¬∑§Ù •fl‡ÿ ∑§⁄UŸË „Ò — (i) ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©‚∑§ ∑§fl⁄U ¬¡§¬⁄U ‹ªË ∑§Êª¡ ∑§Ë ‚Ë‹ ∑§Ù »§Ê«∏U ‹¢U– πÈ‹Ë „È߸ ÿÊ Á’ŸÊ S≈UË∑§⁄U-‚Ë‹U ∑§Ë ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U– (ii) ∑§fl⁄U ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ ¬ÎDU ÃÕÊ ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑§Ë ‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑§Ù •ë¿UË Ã⁄U„ øÒ∑§ ∑§⁄U ‹¢U Á∑§ ÿ ¬Í⁄U „Ò¢U– ŒÙ·¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎDU / ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ •Ê ªÿ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄Uÿ‹U ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢ •Õʸà Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë òÊÈÁ≈U¬Íáʸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê SflË∑§Ê⁄U Ÿ ∑§⁄¢U ÃÕÊ ©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹Uı≈UÊ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ŒÍ‚⁄UË ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‹ ‹¢– U ß‚∑§ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑§ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê flʬ‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄U Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑§Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄UQ§ ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ– (iii) ß‚ ¡Ê°ø ∑§ ’ÊŒ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ë R§◊ ‚¢ÅÿÊ OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¢U •Uı⁄U OMR ¬òÊ∑§ ∑§Ë R§◊§‚¢ÅÿÊ ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄U Œ¢– 4. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬ (A), (B), (C) ÃÕÊ (D) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢– •Ê¬∑§Ù ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ ŒËÉʸflÎûÊ ∑§Ù ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄U∑§⁄U ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò ¡Ò‚Ê Á∑§ ŸËø ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò– ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ — A B C D ¡’Á∑§ (C) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U „Ò– 5. ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹U ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬òÊI ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „Ë •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ „Ò¢– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ŒËÉʸflÎûÊ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U Áøã„Ê¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò, ÃÙ ©‚∑§Ê ◊ÍÀUÿÊ¢∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¢ „٪ʖ 6. •ãŒ⁄U ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑§Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬…∏¢U– 7. ∑§ìÊÊ ∑§Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎDU ¬⁄U ∑§⁄¢U– 8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊ ÿÊ ∞‚Ê ∑§Ù߸ ÷Ë ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ „Ù ‚∑§, §Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ÷ʪ ¬⁄U Œ‡ÊʸÃ ÿÊ •¢Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¢ ÃÙ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ Á‹ÿ •ÿÙÇÿ ÉÊÙÁ·Ã ∑§⁄U ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– 9. •Ê¬∑§Ù ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ §¬⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ OMR ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑§Ù ‹Uı≈UÊŸÊ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò •ı⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U Ÿ ‹∑§⁄U ¡Êÿ¢– 10. ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹ / ∑§Ê‹ ’Ê‹U åflÊßZ≈U ¬ÒŸ ∑§Ê „Ë ßSÃ◊Ê‹ ∑§⁄¢U– 11. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑§ (∑Ò§‹∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U) UÿÊ ‹Êª ≈U’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò– 12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ •¢∑§ Ÿ„Ë¢ ∑§Ê≈U ¡Êÿ¢ª– OMR Sheet No. : ...................................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) JUNE 2009
  • 2. 2J—8709 Computer Science and Applications PAPER—II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective-type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them. 1. If x and y are independent Gaussian random variables with average value 0 and with same variance, their joint probability density function is given by : (A) p(x, y)5p(x).p(y) (B) p(x, y)5p(x)1p(y) (C) p(x, y)5p(x1y) (D) p(x, y)5p(x).p(y)1p(x) 2. In order that a code is ‘t’ error correcting, the minimum Hamming distance should be : (A) t (B) 2t21 (C) 2t (D) 2t11 3. The Boolean expression zxzyzyx 11 is equivalent to : (A) x (B) y (C) z (D) x1y1z 4. The characteristic equation of a JK flip flop is : (A) Qn115J.Qn1K.Qn (B) Qn115J. Q n1 K .Qn (C) Qn115Qn J.K (D) Qn115(J1k)Qn 5. In order to implement a n variable switching function, a MUX must have : (A) 2n inputs (B) 2n11 inputs (C) 2n21 inputs (D) 2n21 inputs 6. The throughput of pure ALOHA is given by : (A) S5G (B) S5e2G (C) S5Ge2G (D) S5Ge22G 7. The Fiber Distributed Data Interface uses : (A) single mode fibers and LEDs (B) multimode fibers and LEDs (C) single mode fibers and ILDs (D) multimode fibers and ILDs 8. To employ multi-access in GSM, users are given different : (A) time slots (B) bandpass filters (C) handsets (D) frequency bands 9. With a four programs in memory and with 80% average I/O wait, the CPU utilization is ? (A) 60% (B) 70% (C) 90% (D) 100% 10. Assume N segments in memory and a page size of P bytes. The wastage on account of internal fragmentation is : (A) NP/2 bytes (B) P/2 bytes (C) N/2 bytes (D) NP bytes ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
  • 3. 3 P.T.O.J—8709 11. Assertion (A) : Bit maps are not often used in memory management. Reason (R) : Searching a bit map for a run of given length is a slow operation. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation for (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation for (A) (C) (A) is true (R) is false (D) (A) is false (R) is true 12. The complete graph with four vertices has k edges where k is : (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 13. The octal equivalent of hexadecimal (A.B)16 is : (A) 47.21 (B) 12.74 (C) 12.71 (D) 17.21 14. A reduced state table has 18 rows. The minimum number of Flips flops needed to implement the sequential machine is : (A) 18 (B) 9 (C) 5 (D) 4 15. What is the value of ‘b’ after the execution of the following code statements : c510; b511c111c; (A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) None 16. Which of the following does not represent a valid storage class in ‘c’ ? (A) automatic (B) static (C) union (D) extern 17. The friend functions are used in situations where : (A) We want to have access to unrelated classes (B) Dynamic binding is required (C) Exchange of data between classes to take place (D) None of the above 18. (i) DML includes a query language based on both relation algebra and tuple calculus (ii) DML includes a query language based on tuple calculus (iii) DML includes a query language based on relational algebra (iv) DML includes a query language based on none of the relational algebra and tuple calculus Which one is correct ? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only 19. Suppose it takes 100 ns to access a page table and 20 ns to access associative memory with a 90% hit rate, the average access time equals : (A) 20 ns (B) 28 ns (C) 90 ns (D) 100 ns 20. There exists a construct which returns a value ‘true’ if the argument subquery is : (A) empty (B) non-empty (C) in error (D) none of the above ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
  • 4. 4J—8709 21. Which construct in SQL is used to test whether a subquery has any tuples in its result ? (A) UNIQUE (B) EXISTS (C) GROUP BY (D) EXCEPT 22. ORACLE supports : (A) inner join and outer join only (B) outer join and semi join only (C) inner join, outer join, semi join only (D) inner join, outer join, semi join and anti join 23. Which two of the following are equivalent for an undirected graph G ? (i) G is a tree (ii) There is at least one path between any two distinct vertices of G (iii) G contains no cycles and has (n21) edges (iv) G has n edges (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) 24. In a B tree of order m with p nodes the average number of splits is at most : (A)           1 2 1 2 m (B)           1 2 2 m (C)     2 1 m (D) None 25. The propositional formula given by the tree : is : (A) 1112 xxxx ¬¬∨∨∧ (B) )()( 2122 xxxx ∨∧∨ ¬ (C) )()( 2121 xxxx ∨∧∨ ¬¬ (D) None 26. Queue is a __________ list. (A) LIFO (B) LILO (C) FILO (D) FIFO ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
  • 5. 5 P.T.O.J—8709 27. In a full binary tree of height k, there are __________ internal nodes. (A) 2k21 (B) 2k21 (C) 2k (D) 2k11 28. A binary tree is said to have heap property if the elements along any path : (A) from leaf to root are non–increasing (B) from leaf to root are non–decreasing (C) from root to leaf are non–decreasing (D) from root to leaf are non–increasing 29. X.25 protocol consists of : (A) Physical and Frame levels (B) Frame and Packet levels (C) Physical, Frame and Packet levels (D) None of the above 30. GSM/CDMA systems : (A) are limited to very low speed data(B) require no local loop wires (C) are predominantly used for voice (D) all of the above 31. Usually information security in a network is achieved by : (A) Layering (B) Cryptography (C) Grade of service (D) None of the above 32 The linker : (A) is similar to interpreter (B) uses source code as its input (C) is required to create a load module (D) none of the above 33. In which addressing mode the operand is given explicitly in the instruction itself ? (A) Absolute mode (B) Immediate mode (C) Indirect mode (D) Index mode 34. A compiler that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine is called : (A) Cross compilation (B) One pass compilation (C) Two pass compilation (D) None of the above 35. Any syntactic construct that can be described by a regular expression can also be described by a : (A) Context sensitive grammar (B) Non context free grammar (C) Context free grammar (D) None of the above ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
  • 6. 6J—8709 36. Find the odd man out : (A) tail (B) cut (C) wart (D) sed 37. Which of the following changes permission to deny write permission to group and others ? (A) Chmod go2w filex (B) Chmod go w filex (C) Chmod go5w filex (D) None of the above 38. Variable partition memory management technique with compaction results in : (A) Reduction of fragmentation (B) Minimal wastage (C) Segment sharing (D) None of the above 39. Capability Maturity Model is meant for : (A) Product (B) Process (C) Product and Process (D) None of the above 40. In the light of software engineering software consists of : (A) Programs (B) Data (C) Documentation (D) All of the above 41. Which one of the following ISO standard is used for software process ? (A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001 (C) ISO 9003 (D) ISO 9000–3 42. Which of the following is used for test data generation ? (A) White Box (B) Black Box (C) Boundary–value analysis (D) All of the above 43. Reverse engineering is the process which deals with : (A) Size measurement (B) Cost measurement (C) Design recovery (D) All of the above 44. The spacing between character pairs is called : (A) kerning (B) x-height (C) intercap (D) serif ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER
  • 7. 7 P.T.O.J—8709 45. When compared with analog cellular systems, an advantage of digital TDMA cellular system is that : (A) it is less complicated (B) it requires less of computer memory (C) it conserves spectrum bandwidth (D) it costs less 46. E–commerce includes : (A) B2C (B) B2B (C) C2C (D) All of the above 47. A clustering technique that permits a convenient graphical display is : (A) partition based clustering (B) probabilistic model based clustering (C) hierarchical clustering (D) agglomerative clustering 48. After sending a message ,the sender should not be able to, at a later date, deny having sent the message, is referred to as : (A) Authenticity (B) Non–Repudiability (C) Auditability (D) Repudiability 49. The device which connects dissimilar LANs of different topologies using different sets of communication protocols so that information can flow from one to another is called : (A) Router (B) Bridge (C) Gateway (D) Switch 50. We can not delete the __________ icon but we can made it invisible. (A) Recycle (B) My computer (C) Internet explorer (D) None of the above - o O o - ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER ANSWER