150 practice questions for MRCOQ part 1 examination

1. 1.
True for aortic malformation
A
Patent ductus arteriosus
B
Coarctation of aorta
C
Double aortic arch
D
Abnormal origin of subclavian artery
E
Patent foramen ovale
2.
Embryonic period is
A
4-8 weeks
B
Period of organogenesis
C
When major malformation to the embryo can occur due to exposure to teratogen
D
Growth and differentiation of tissues
E
When morphogenesis of embryo occurs
3.
Klinefelter Syndrome
A
Chromosome XXY pattern
B
Chromosomal make up may be XXXXY
C
Hypoplastic uterus
D
Streak Ovaries
E
oligospermia
4.
A complete hydatidiform mole
A
Is pregnancy without embryo
B
Secrete human chorionic gonadothrophin
C
Show partial development of an embryo
D
Is diploid but contains only paternal chromosomes
E
Main causative mechanism has been shown to be monoeprmic fertilization of an
anucleated eggs
5.
44 days (7 weeks)old human embryo
A
Genital ridge appears
B
Skeletal ossification begins
C
Sertoli cells begin to differentiate
D
Pigment appears in retina
E
Elbow and toe rays appear
6.
Klinefelter Syndrome
A
Hypoplastic uterus
B
Streak Ovaries
C
Sex chromatin positive
D
Increase number of X chromosome associated with mental retardation
E
Female external genitalia
7.
Endocardial cushion defect
A
Primary type atrial septal defect
B
Result of defective fusion of the septum primum with the endocardial cushion
leaving a patent foramen ovale
C
A seldom seen abnormality
D
Complete endocardial cushion defect is een in 20% of all Down’s Syndrome
-1-

2. E
Associated with dextrocardia
8.
Lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to
A
Serosal membrane that lines the coelom
B
Septum transversum
C
Somatopleuric mesoderm coating the inner surface of the body wall
D
Dorsal mesentery
E
The splanchnopleuric mesoderm ensheathing the gut tube
9.
Complete duplicate ureters, the reasons
A
Premature bifurcation of ureteric bud
B
Two ureteric buds arised from mesonephric duct and penetrates the metanephric
blasterma
C
Abnormality in the mechanism of mesonephric duct
D
Abnormality in the Weigwert Mayer’s rule
E
Defects in the interaction between ureteric bud and metanephric blasterma
10.
Main cause of Potter’s syndrome
A
Bilateral renal agenesis
B
Oligohydramnios
C
Unilateral renal agenesis
D
Renal hypoplasia
E
Renal dysplasia
11.
Spermatogenic cells
A
Sertoli cells
B
Spermatogonia
C
Spermatozoa
D
Spermatocytes
E
Spermatids
12.
Fetal blood
A
α feto protein is a smaller molecule than albumin
B
The increased white cell count at term is due to polymorphonucleocyte
C
1◦ megaloblastic erythroblast appears at 8/52
D
The liver, yolk sac, bone marrow produces 2◦ erythroblastic megaloblasts after
birth
E
Bone marrow and liver produce α chains
13.
The following statement is not true
A
The foregut and hindgut are endodermal in origin
B
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the hidgut
C
The formation of peptidases in small intestines begins at 10/52
D
The peristaltic movements begin at 30/52
E
The acidification of stomach begins at birth
14.
The following are true regarding oxytocin
A
It causes ascending contraction from the cervix to the fundus
B
The receptors in the uterus increase with gestation
C
The amplitude and frequency of uterine contraction is not proportionate to the
-2-

3. D
E
dose
Extremely high dose may cause insufficient blood supply to the fetus
The usage in preeclamptic patient has to be with caution
15.
Prostaglandin
A
Increases the uterine tone
B
Is a useful abortifacient
C
E2 is used for cervical ripening
D
Causes cervical relaxation
E
Inhibits gravid uterine contraction stimulated by oxytocin
16.
Oxytocin
A
Inhibits milk production
B
Has vasodilator effect
C
Is used in induction of labour
D
Causes water retention
E
Is effective in treating menorrhagia
17.
Ergometrine
A
Does not contract a postpartum uterus
B
Has vasodilatation effect
C
Inhibits emesis
D
Stimulates contraction of mioepithelium of mammary glands
E
Is effective in postpartum haemorrhage
18.
Prostaglandin
A
E2α does not cause gravid uterine contraction
B
F2α relaxes a non-gravid uterus
C
Causes menorrhagia
D
Is effective in the treatment of dysmenorrhoea
E
F2α is synthesized plentifully in the uterus
19.
The following statements are true regarding lactation
A
The alveolar septum secretes milk
B
The mineralocorticoid, prolactin and oxytocin are needed for maturation of the
mammary gland
C
The enzyme specifier B lactalbumin is switched off by progesterone
D
Lactose synthesizing enzyme is a complex of galactocyl transferase and α
lactalbumin
E
Lactose is synthesized in large quantity ante- and intrapartum
20.
Breast milk
A
The carbohydrate content is the product of condensation of galactose and glucose
B
Almost 10% of human milk is fat
C
The main source of protein is casein
D
The colostrum has higher immunoglobulin than full cream milk
E
The electolytes content are all higher when compared with plasma
-3-

4. 21.
These methods suppress lactation
A
Oestrogen
B
Restricted fluid intake
C
Intermittent, reducing frequencies of expressing milk
D
Adequate breast support
E
Bromocriptine
22.
The following are true
A
The milk energy content is 1000kCal/L
B
The cow’s milk has equal carbohydrate but more fat than breast milk
C
Milk ejection is a neuron-endocrine reflex
D
Psychological stress suppresses lactation
E
Lactational amenorrhoea provides contraception on in the first 3 months
23.
The following are correct
A
Conceptual age = ovulating age +/- 14 days
B
The ovulatory age assumes fertilization at day 14 of any menstrual cycle
C
Menstrual age/ gestation = ovulatory age +/- 14 days
D
The trophoblast forms lacunae after the day of embedding
E
The connecting stalk following retraction of 2◦ yolk sac fron chorionic cavity is
the definitive yolk sac
24.
The following combinations are correct
A
Epidermis & appendages – ectoderm
B
Bladder & urethral epithelium – mesoderm
C
Pancreas duct and islet – endoderm
D
Connecting stalk – umbilical cord
E
Morula – Day 4 week 1
25.
Fetal pituitary gland
A
Anterior pituitary – from Pouch of Rathke
B
Neural tube – from anterior lobe of pituitary
C
GH and prolactin – begins synthesis from second trimester
D
Parapharyngeal pouch IV – superior parathyroid (dorsal)
E
Pharyngeal pouch II – thyroid gland
26.
The activity of the following endocrine glands are increased during pregnancy
A
Thyroid
B
Hypothalamus
C
Adrenals
D
Breasts
E
Pituitary
27.
The normal endocrinological change occurring in pregnancy are
A
Increased ACTH
B
Increased prolactin
C
Increased thyroxine levels
D
Increased cortisol levels
E
Increased rennin levels
-4-

5. 28.
Hormone dynamics during pregnancy
A
The placenta cannot synthesise oestrogen from C-21 steroids
B
The placenta can utilize only C-19 steroids as precursors for oestrogen
biosynthesis
C
The major of the oestrogen precursors is from the mother
D
Dehydroepi-androsterone sulphate originates from fetal adrenal
E
Placental sulphatase deficiency causes low oestrogen production resulting in
deleterious fetal growth
29.
The following statements aabout hormonal situation in pregnancy are correct
A
Maximal hCG levels are found between day 60 and 80 of pregnancy
B
HPL raises maternal blood sugar
C
Oestradiol accounts for 90% of oestrogen secreted in pregnancy
D
Progesterone levels decrease before birth
E
SP1 has an ovarian origin
30.
Excretion of the following increases progressively from the 20th to 36th week
of normal pregnancy
A
Oestradiol
B
Pregnanediol
C
Chorionic gonadotrophin
D
Pregnanetriol
E
Oestrone
31.
The following increases in the urine during pregnancy
A
Oestriol
B
Progesterone
C
Vaninyl mandelic acid
D
Relaxin
E
Pregnanediol
32.
During pregnancy
A
The output of maternal parathormone is increased
B
The placenta secretes relaxin
C
The corpus luteum begins to atrophy soon after implantation
D
The placenta can convert glucose into glycogen
E
There is negative nitrogen balance
33.
In normal pregnancy
A
There are equal increases in the excretion of oestrone, oestradiol and oestriol
B
Serum hCG concentration rises to a peak at 20 weeks gestation
C
There is reduced aldosterone secretion
D
Androgen excretion is reduced
E
There is an increase in serum protein bound iodine
34.
The following changes in the genital tract occur during pregnancy
A
Decrease vaginal pH
B
Cervical ectopy
C
Throphoblastic invasion of spiral arteries
D
The lower segment forms in the mid-trimester
-5-

6. E
Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of myometrial fibres occur
35.
The following biochemical changes occur in normal pregnancy
A
Decrease in serum albumin
B
Decrease in serum IgG
C
Decrease in blood urea
D
Decrease in iron binding capacity
E
Decrease in total haemoglobin
36.
In early pregnancy
A
The chorion leave is the precursor of the true placenta
B
The uterine cavity is obliterated when the decidua capsularis comes in contact
with the decidua vera
C
The syncytiotrophoblast is in contact with maternal blood
D
Both vitelline veins will become umbilical veins
E
The zygote begins to embed in the uterus at the age of 3 days
37.
During pregnancy there is an increase in the size of
A
Uterine muscle cells
B
Uterine fibrous and elastic tissues
C
Uterine blood vessels
D
Frankenhauser’s ganglion
E
Pituitary gland
38.
Lactation
A
is initiated by a postpartum prolactin surge
B
Requires the presence of adequate circulating growth hormone
C
Is controlled by oxytocin
D
Inhibits ovulation in 50% of nursing mothers
E
Occurs inappropriately in the Budd-Chiari Syndrome
39.
During pregnancy
A
Glycosuria is an effective test of carbohydrate intolerance
B
Fasting plasma glucose concentration is decreased
C
Fasting plasma insulin concentration is decreased
D
The oral glucose tolerance test alters with advancing gestation
E
Two hours after an oral glucose load, plasma insulin concentration should have
returned to fasting levels
40.
The following hormone shelp to maintain established lactation
A
Prolactin
B
Human placental lactogen
C
Corticosteroids
D
Oestrogen
E
Growth hormone
41.
The following statements relate to the total oestrogen excretion in pregnancy
A
30% of urinary oestrogens are conjugates of oestradiol
B
In defining the normal range of excretion, biological and assay variations are
additive
-6-

7. C
D
E
Oestrogen excretion increases with parity
Oestrogen excretion is higher in mothers with female fetuses
A falling pattern of Oestrogen excretion within the normal range, is a reliable
guide to fetal prognosis
42.
Falling levels of total oestrogen in maternal urine during pregnancy may often
indicate
A
Antepartum haemorrhage
B
Impending fetal death
C
Fetal adrenal hyperplasia
D
Fetal abnormality
E
Tobacco smoking
43.
At birth
A
The foramen ovale closes immediately
B
The ductus arteriosus constricts in response to hypoxia
C
The pulmonary vasculature constricts vigorously in response to acidosis
D
Output from the left ventricle increases
E
Pressure falls in the right ventricle and pulmonary atery
44.
The following are normal peripheral blood values at birth
A
Mean Hb of 12g/dl
B
Fetal Hb of 25% on electrophoresis
C
White cell count of 15,000 – 20,000 cu. Mm
D
Lymphocyte count of 90% of total white cell count
E
Serum bilirubin of up to 100 mmol/l
45.
In the fetal circulation
A
The two umbilical veins carry blood from the fetus to the placenta for gaseous
exchange
B
The oxygen content is higher in the umbilical artery than the carotid artery
C
Under normal circumstances, blood from the superior vena cava is minimally
shunted through the foramen ovale
D
Ductus venosus is the first shunt for the oxygenated blood coming from the
placenta
E
The circulation in the umbilical arteries and the placenta has lower resistance
46.
Lack of surfactatnt in the infant lungs
A
Tends to be more marked the more prematurely is the infant born
B
Increases the tendency of the lungs to remain expanded despite the infant’s
expiratory efforts
C
Leads to poor oxygenation of the blood before birth
D
Does not change the overall work of breathing
E
Prevents the delivery of fetus in pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks
47.
Fetal respiratory movements in utero
A
Are normally present for 80% of a 24 hour period
B
Occur at a frequency of 2 per minute
C
Are increased in diabetic pregnancies
D
Are reduced by maternal hyperventilation
-7-

8. E
Are increased during labour
48.
Fetal pulmonary maturity
A
Is delayed in diabetic pregnancies
B
Normally occurs before the 36th week of gestation
C
Is influenced by maternal corticosteroid levels
D
Is controlled by α fetoprotein
E
Is delayed in anencephaly
49.
The following are Gram positive bacteria
A
Clostridium welchii
B
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C
Neisseria meningitis
D
Bacillus anthracis
E
Vibrio cholera
50.
The following blood coagulation factors are increased during pregnancy
A
Factor I
B
Factor VII
C
Platelets
D
Factor XIII
E
Factor X
51.
The purine bases nucleic acids include
A
Adenine
B
Cytosine
C
Uracil
D
Guanine
E
Thymine
52.
The following vitamins are fat soluble
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B2
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin K
E
Vitamin C
53.
In normal thyroid physiology
A
The mammary gland can trap iodide
B
T4 is released from TBG by proteolysis
C
Thyroxine binding protein is a beta globulin
D
TBG has 3 times greater affinity for triiodothyronine
E
The normal range of protein bound iodine in the blood is 4-8 mcg per 100ml
54.
The posterior relation of the ovary include
A
Ureter
B
Internal iliac artery
C
Ovarian artery
D
External iliac artery
E
Ovarian ligament
-8-

9. 55.
Transplacental transfer of blood constituents may cause neonatal disease,
when the mother is suffering from
A
Hyperparathyroidism
B
Tuberosclerosis
C
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D
SLE
E
Rheumatoid arthritis
56.
The following are transported across the placenta
A
IgA
B
IgG
C
Calcium
D
Insulin
E
Pethidine
57.
The rate of maternal-to-fetal oxygen flux across the placenta depends on
A
Uterine blood flow rate
B
Fetal oxygen consumption rate
C
The oxygen gradient across the placenta
D
Carbon dioxide transfer
E
Fetal haemoglobin
58.
Normal urodynamic study
A
First sensation of micturition at 300ml
B
Residual urine 0-10ml
C
Maximum urine flow rate 100-150 ml/s
D
Voiding volume 200-300 ml
E
Bladder capacity >600ml
59.
Which of the following have a dominant inheritance
A
Marfan’s Syndrome
B
Tuberous sclerosis
C
Spherocytosis
D
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
E
Blue/ green colour blindness
60.
Human placental lactogen
A
Has a molecular weight of 21 600
B
Has a half life of 15 minutes
C
Has no carbohydrate residues
D
Has two chains of amino acids
E
Is excreted in the urine
61.
the following examples of teratogenic agents and their effects are correct
A
Phenytoin – nasal hypoplasia
B
Lithium – cleft palate, spina bifida
C
Irradiation – leukaemia
D
Quinine – optic nerve hypoplasia
E
Warfarin – cleft palate
-9-

10. 62.
The following description are correct
A
Chi- squared test – the standard test for comparing the difference between two
means
B
F-test – the standard method for comparing the size of variances
C
Correlation – the relation between 2 variables
D
Mean – the most frequently occurring value
E
Standard deviation – the square of variance
63.
the following features of Actinonyces Israeli are true
A
Gram positive
B
Aerobic
C
Mouth commensal
D
Causes unilateral salpingitis
E
Associated with ‘Dalkon Shield’
64.
The cardiovascular changes in pregnancy are
A
Increase stroke volume
B
Increase heart rate
C
All heart sounds are louder
D
First heart sound is split
E
A diastolic murmur is normal
65.
The ECG done during pregnancy may show
A
High voltage QRS complexes
B
Deep Q waves
C
Inversion of T waves
D
ST depression
E
Ventricular extrasystoles
66.
The vagina
A
Has 3 layers of cells
B
pH is normally acidic
C
Vaginal fluid has a higher potassium level
D
Vaginal fluid has a higher sodium level
E
Vaginal fluid may act as pheromones
67.
The following associations are correct
A
Genital folds – labia majora
B
Genital swelling – Bartholin’s glands
C
Mullerian duct – ovary, fallopian tubes and uterus
D
Genital swelling – Bulbouethral glands
E
Genital tubercle – clitoris
68.
The following nerve originates from the lumbar plexus
A
Superior gluteal
B
Genitofemoral
C
Pedendal
D
Obturator
E
Femoral
- 10 -

11. 69.
Addison’s syndrome
A
Hyponatraemia
B
Vomiting
C
Muscle wasting
D
Hypokalaemia
E
Metabolic acidosis
70.
Pineal gland
A
Innervated by parasympathetic neurons
B
Secrete melatonin
C
Innervated by sympathetic pathways
D
Present in the roof of third ventricle
E
Vestigial gland in humans
71.
Glucagon
A
Secreted by alpha cells of islets of langerhans
B
Single chain polypeptide
C
Secretion increases during exercise and stress
D
Glycogenolytic hormone
E
Ketogenic hormone
72.
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin
A
Has alpha and beta chain
B
Has molecular weight of 28000
C
UPT detects urine B HCG
D
Similar to luteinising hormone
E
Secreted by corpus luteum in pregnancy
73.
Amniotic fluid
A
Is alkalotic
B
Contains fetal epithelial cells
C
Is the transudate from fetal intracellular cells
D
Is acidic
E
Volume increases as pregnancy advances
74.
Structures passing through the Greater Sciatic Notch below the piriformis
A
Internal pudendal neurovascular bundle
B
Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
C
Tendon of obturator internus
D
Superior gluteal nerve
E
Inferior gluteal neurovascular bundle
75.
Which of the following hormones promotes hypoglycaemia?
A
Epinephrine
B
Norepinephrine
C
Insulin
D
Glucagon
E
Glucocorticoids
- 11 -

12. 76.
Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis?
A
Progesterone
B
Glucagon
C
Aldosterone
D
Epinephrine
E
Thyroxine
77.
The citric acid cycle is inhibited by which of the following?
A
Fluoroacetate
B
Fluorouracil
C
Aerobic conditions
D
Arsenic
E
Malic acid
78.
Which one of the following enzymes catalyses high-energy phosphorylation of
substrates during glycolysis?
A
Pyruvate kinase
B
Phosphoglycerate kinase
C
Triose phosphate isomerase
D
Aldolase
E
Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
79.
Which are the ketogenic amino acids?
A
Leucine
B
Isoleucine
C
Phenylalanine
D
Tyrosine
E
Alanine
80.
Tricarboxylic cycle (Krebs Cycle)
A
Occurs in aerobic
B
Occurs in the mitochondria
C
Net production of 2 ATPs
D
End product is carbon dioxide and water
E
Occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
81.
The following are true
A
Human parvovirus B19 is associated with hydrops fetalis
B
Intrauterine infection occurs as a result of maternal herpes zoster
C
CMV is excreted in breast milk
D
Coxsackie A virus causes neonatal myocarditis
E
Hepatitis B virus is frequently transmitted to fetus during vaginal delivery
82.
Lymphocytes in health
A
Form 2% of white cell count
B
Play an essential role in cell-medicated immunity
C
Can change into plasma cells
D
Have proportionately more nuclear material than cytoplasm
E
Have a life span of about 30 days
- 12 -

13. 83.
Common aetiological agents of salpingitis
A
Neisseria gonorrhoea
B
Bacteroides fragilis
C
E Coli
D
Chlamydia trachomatis
E
Salmonella sp.
84.
The following are frequently associated with postpartum infection
A
Group B streptococcus
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D
Bacteroides fragilis
E
Eischerichia coli
85.
Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with
A
Low sperm counts in men
B
Chronic pelvic pain in women
C
Asymptomatic endometritis
D
Recurrent salphingitis
E
Prostatic hypertrophy
86.
Morphine
A
Is detoxified by oxidation to gentisic acid
B
Increases biliary tract pressure
C
Is eliminated mainly in conjugated state via glomerular filtrate
D
Is secreted in bile
E
Alters the threshold or responsivity of nerve endingd to noxious stimuli
87.
In 28 days old embryo
A
Ureteric bud present
B
Otic vesicle and lens placode
C
Neural fold begins to fuse
D
Myocardium forms and hearts begins to pump
E
Spinal nerve begins to sprout
88.
Which of these derived from derived from hypoblast
A
Extraembryonic endoderm
B
Amniotic membrane
C
Exocoelomic membrane
D
Heuser’s membrane
E
Extraembryonic endoderm
89.
Wilm’s tumour
A
Is a nephroblastoma that contain mixed layer of cells and tissues
B
Is one of the most frequent neoplasm in children
C
Arised from abnormal gonadal agenesis
D
Is a type of benign tumour found in teenagers
E
Is associated with VAGR syndrome
- 13 -

14. 90.
Collagen
A
Has double helical structure
B
Shows regular banding pattern on electronic microscopy
C
Not found normally in absence of ascorbic acid
D
Is not found within basement membrane
E
Synthesis imhibited by glucocorticoids
91.
High alpha fetoprotein is associated with
A
Seminoma
B
Hepatoblastoma
C
Embryonal carcinoma
D
Choriocarcinoma
E
Breast carcinoma
92.
Extrabasal cells are commonly seen in smears of
A
Normal reproductive women
B
Postnatal period
C
Postmenopausal period
D
Pregnancy
E
Impending abortion
93.
Features of secretory phase endometrium include
A
Supranuclear vacuolation of epithelium
B
Decidual change in stroma
C
Pseudostratification of columnar epithelium
D
Stromal oedema
E
Saw-tooth appearance of glands
94.
Features of hydropic swelling in a cell are due to
A
Accumulation of fluid in cytoplasm
B
Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum
C
Mitochondrial swelling
D
Swelling of nuclei
E
Disruption of Golgi apparatus
95.
Examples of metaplasia include
A
Leukoplakia of vulva
B
Development of cystitis glandularis of urinary bladder
C
Intestinalisation of gastric epithelium
D
Development of carcinoma in situ in cervical epithelium
E
Ossification of scar tissue
96.
In acute disseminated intravascular coagulation
A
PT and PTT are prolonged
B
There is presence of fragmented RBCs in peripheral blood film
C
Important part of management is treatment of the cause
D
Heparin may be useful
E
Thrombin time is not prolonged
- 14 -

15. 97.
Bromocriptine
A
Suppresses LH production
B
Causes headache
C
Is teratogenic
D
Causes postural hypotension
E
Is antiestrogenic
98.
The effects of clomiphene include
A
Hot flushes
B
Transient blurring of vision
C
Abortion
D
Ovarian enlargement
E
Hirsutism
99.
Combined oral contraceptives
A
Prevent menstruation if given continuously
B
Are contraindicated in pregnancy
C
Act mainly by preventing implantation of fertilised ovum
D
Depress secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
E
Increase body weight
100. Bacteriosis
A
Is due to Gram negative organisms
B
May be effectively treated with penicillin
C
May occur as transplacental infection
D
May be sexually transmitted
E
Presents in adults as a flu-like illness
101. The following structures are likely to be injured in submandibulectomy
A
Cervical branch of the facial nerve
B
Otic ganglion
C
Hypoglossal nerve
D
Lingual nerve
E
Retromandibular vein
102. The following statements are true of perianal suppuration
A
It arises from anal glands
B
It travels to ischiorectal fossa via the external sphincter
C
It passes intersphincterically to the perianal skin
D
Is found in ulcerative colitis
E
The surgical drainage leads to perianal fistula
103. The following are true of hypercalcaemia
A
It can present as an acute pancreatitits
B
Is commonly caused by metastatic lesion in the bones
C
Is lowered by calcitonin
D
There is a U wave in ECG
E
It can cause cardiac arrest
- 15 -

16. 104. Regarding ambiguous genitalia
A
Palpable gonads with chromatin – True haemophradite (XX/XY)
B
Gonad not palpable with positive chromatin – CAH
C
Commonest cause of ambiguous genitalia – CAH
D
Incomplete 46XY gonadal dysgenesis – normal gonad
E
Klinefelter’s – 46XY/ 45XO
105. Regarding prescribing in pregnancy
A
Tetracycline is not contraindicated
B
Cotrimoxazole causes Grey Syndrome
C
Heparin crosses the placenta
D
Nitrofurantoin is harmful to the fetus
E
Warfarin causes chondrodysplasia
106. Regarding the gene
A
Unit of genetic information which is a Mendel’s factor
B
The protein polypeptide chains of gene is synthesized in the nucleus
C
Only riboxine and mRNA necessary for polypeptide synthesis
D
TATA box aids in mRNA polymerase II to the correct initiation site for
transcription
E
Hybridization is not part of DNA diagnosis
107. These combinations are true
A
Autosomal dominant – Huntington’s disease
B
Autosomal recessive – Tuberous sclerosis
C
Autosomal recessive – monozygote carriers
D
Autosomal recessive – Albinism
E
Sex linked – father to son transmission
108. Regarding bacteria
A
Transition of losing the capsule is a R S transition
B
As the refractive index is less than H2O it is difficult to be visualized
C
The basis of typing in GMN is the Thecoic acid
D
The B lactamase is found in plasmic spaces
E
The hydrophobic nature of mycobacterium confers the acid fastness
characteristics
109. Regarding fat
A
The density of fat is proportionate to protein content
B
Complexes composed of triglycerides and phospholipids
C
HDL transports the main bulk of plasma cholesterol
D
The synthesis of LDL is in the liver
E
HDL contains 50% protein mainly A1, A2
110. In the adult human
A
Plasma albumin is synthesized in the liver
B
Elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) activity is a good indicator of liver
damage
C
There are about 76g of protein per litre of plasma
D
Plasma fibrinogen is synthesized in the liver
- 16 -

17. E
An alpha 2 globulin synthesized in the liver is a substrate for renin
111. Coagulation of blood may me impaired
A
When factor VIII is deficient
B
When factor IX is deficient
C
When vitamin A is deficient
D
Immediately on administration of coumarin anticoagulants
E
By heparin which promotes inhibition of thrombin synthesis
112. Coagulation of blood
A
Is inhibited by plasmin
B
Is promoted by urokinase
C
Is inhibited by ancrod, a thrombin-like enzyme
D
Is inhibited by aminocaproic acid
E
May be promoted by aprotinin
113. In the skeletal muscle
A
Tetrodotoxin blocks membrane calcium channel
B
Thiocyanate ions lower the threshold for mechanical activation
C
Caffeine potentiates contraction by inhibition of phosphodiesterase
D
Beta 2 selective adrenoceptor agonists increase twitch tension in fast contracting
fibres
E
Excessive circulating thyroid hormones cause tremors
114. D tubocurarine (Curare)
A
Is a competitive neuromuscular blocker
B
Causes a blockade which is intensified by neostigmine
C
Does not affect transmission in autonomic ganglia
D
Causes paralysis preceded by fasciculations of skeletal muscles
E
Produces a block at the motor end plate that is antagonized by potassium chloride
115. Cardiac sympathetic nerves
A
Have preganglionic axons arising from the lumbar segments of the spinal cord
B
Have postganglionic axons in three bilateral nerve trunks
C
Innervate cardiac pacemaker and contractile tissue only
D
Contain both afferent and efferent axons
E
Have postganglionic cell bodies entirely within the stellate ganglion
116. In an normal resting man, a bradycardia would be expected to occur following
A
Increased carotid sinus pressure
B
Increased right atrial pressure
C
Application of pressure to the eyeball
D
Intravenous administration of a large dose of atropine
E
inspiration
117. Angina pectoris may be ameliorated by
A
An effect of glyceryl trinitrate on coronary arterial perfusion of ischaemic
myocardium
B
B adrenoceptor antagonist, such as propranolol
C
Administration of hyperbaric oxygen
- 17 -

18. D
E
Oral administration of Verapamil
Intravenous administration of Dobutamine
118. Essential aminoacids for adults include
A
Leucine
B
Phenylalanine
C
Histidine
D
Valine
E
Lysine
119. The following hormones are increased during pregnancy
A
Insulin
B
Parathyroid hormones
C
Calcitonin
D
Cortisol
E
Growth hormones
120. The following associations are correct
A
Chloramphenicol – Grey syndrome
B
Tetracycline – hypoplasia of primary teeth
C
Novobiocin – neonatal jaundice
D
Rifampicin – spina bifida
E
Chlorothiazide - thrombocytopenia
121. Spinbarkeit activity
A
Pertains to the arborisation phenomenon
B
Peaks following ovulation
C
Increases in activity in the proliferative phase
D
Is caused by the progesterone effect
E
Is taken in consideration in the Billing’s method
122. The early menstrual cycles in a woman reproductive life are usually
A
Anovulatory
B
Painful
C
Irregular
D
Has longer luteal phase
E
Before breast enlargement occurs
123. These are examples of primary chronic inflammation
A
Unresolving lobar pneumonia
B
Sarcoidosis
C
Appendiceal abscess mass
D
Tuberculosis
E
Leprosy
124. The following substances are recognized chemical mediators of inflammation
A
Histamine
B
Prostaglandin
C
Dopamine
D
Amiodarone
- 18 -

19. E
Kallidin
125. Benign, rather than malignant neoplasms are characterized by the following
features
A
Increased numbers of mitotic figures
B
Microinvasion
C
Nuclear pleomorphism
D
Orderly maturation
E
Ability to metastasize
126. The following tumours are correctly matched
A
Burkitt’s lymphoma – a t-cell lymphoma common in Europe
B
Kaposi’s sarcoma – a vascular neoplasm associated with AIDS
C
Wilm’s tumour – an embryonal tumour of the kidney
D
Grawitz tumour – adrenocortical carcinoma
E
Ewing’s tumour – a malignant tumour of bone of uncertain histogenesis
127. Which of the following is NOT associated with thrombosis
A
Bleeding
B
Activation of the coagulation mechanism
C
Endothelial damage
D
Formation of platelet aggregates
E
Thrombocytopenia
128. In a patient with the following results:
pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 29 mmHg, bicarbonate = 15 mmol/L
Na = 134 mmol/L, Cl- = 90mmol/L, K+ = 4 mmol/L
A
B
C
D
E
The patient is hyperventilating
The patient has respiratory alkalosis
It could be at a compensated stage
The anion gap is reduced
In this patient, formation of ammonia in the kidneys will be increased
129. Concerning acid-base balance
A
The proteins are quantitatively most important buffers in the body
B
The renal H+ secretion mechanism depends on tubular acidity
C
The urine may be acidic during chronic vomiting
D
The chloride concentration will increase in chronic vomiting
E
The body K+ concentration will increase in chronic diabetic ketosis
130. The plasma concentration of HCO3- is low in
A
Compensated metabolic acidosis
B
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
C
Compensated respiratory acidosis
D
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
E
Compensated respiratory alkalosis
- 19 -

20. 131. Normal micturition
A
Depends on the integrity of a sacral spinal reflex arc
B
Is prevented by sectioning of the ensory nerves supplying the bladder
C
May occur with spinal transaction in the thoracic region
D
Relaxation of sphincters followed by detrusor contraction
E
Is under voluntary control in healthy young adults
132. The following are correct embryological associations
A
Germ cells – wall of the yolk sac
B
Mullerian duct – female genital tract
C
Mullerian duct – Garner’s cyst
D
Genital tubercle – clitoris
E
Metanephros - kidneys
133. Regarding puberty
A
Pubarche – onset of pubic hair
B
Adrenarche – elevation of DHA and DHAS
C
Menarche – before breast growth
D
Ovulation – after menarche
E
Pubertal growth – 45% of final adult height
134. Regarding the menstrual cycle
A
Corpus luteum regulates the constant postovulatory interval
B
LH stimulates follicular development
C
The mean duration of LH surge is 24 hours
D
The preceded increase of progesterone initiates LH surge
E
The raised level of progesterone 36 hours after LH surge indicates ovulation
135. Regarding the menopause
A
Climacteric is the first year of menopause
B
Average age of menopause in Asian women is 50.7 years
C
High levels of FSH result in the loss of follicular reserve
D
Sole primary phenomenon is decrease in ovulatory follicle production of
oestrogen
E
There is a primary increase of FSH
136. Regarding mycology
A
The fungus is dimorphic
B
The yeast is a non-facultative organism
C
Biopsies are not useful for laboratory investigations
D
Tricophytons causes subcutaneous infection
E
Phyconicosis is a systemic infection related with immune suppressed patient
137. The following condition causes a rise in prolactin level
A
Exercise
B
Pain
C
Puerperium
D
Naloxone
E
Renal failure
- 20 -

21. 138. In left ventricular heart failure
A
There is often peripheral vasodilatation
B
Salt and water retention is common
C
There is a tendency towards oedema in the feet and legs when standing
D
Cardiac glycosides may produce a diuresis
E
Left ventricular end diastolic pressure is reduced
139. In the process of blood coagulation
A
Prothrombin II is converted to thrombin IIa by platelet factor 3
B
The role of thrombin is confined to the conversion of fibrinogen I to fibrin Ia
C
The initiating stimulus activates factor XII
D
The initiating stimulus may elevate plasma factor III levels
E
Defects in the final stages may be assessed by addition of thrombin to plasma
140. The following tissues are likely to regenerate following damage:
A
Cereberal cortex
B
Myocardium
C
Bone
D
Liver
E
Spinal cord
141. Granulation tissue
A
Contains fibroblasts
B
Always contain granulomas
C
Often occurs after acute short-lived injury to the liver
D
Contains thin-walled capillaries
E
Actively contracts
142. The following factors will delay healing of a bony fracture
A
Stabilisation
B
Infection
C
Malalignment
D
Interposed soft tissue
E
Paget’s disease of bone
143. In cell death by apoptosis
A
Cell membrane integrity is lost
B
Death of contiguous cell groups occurs
C
An inflammatory response is usual
D
There is energy-dependant fragmentation of DNA by endogenous endonucleases
E
Lysosome leak lytic enzymes
144. Phenylketonuria
A
May be detected using the Guthrie test
B
Is due to a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase
C
Is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin
D
Occurs in 1:1000 infants in Britain
E
Is characterized by mental retardation
- 21 -

22. 145. Dystrophic calcification
A
May occur in the absence of any derangement of calcium metabolism
B
May result in the formation of psammoma bodies
C
Is associated with hyperparathyroidism
D
Is associated with the ingestion of large amounts of milk
E
May lead to heterotopic bone formation
146. The following organisms characterictically induce a granulomatous
inflammatory response
A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B
Staphylococcus Aureus
C
Treponema pallidum
D
Mycobacterium leprae
E
Streptococcus pneumoniae
147. Examples of aneuploidy are seen in patients suffering from:
A
Klinefelter’s syndrome
B
Cystic fibrosis
C
Edward’s syndrome
D
Huntington’s chorea
E
G6PD deficiency
148. The following statements is/ are true of carbohydrate metabolism
A
There is an increased rate of absorption of glucose in pregnancy
B
During mid and late pregnancy there is progressive rise in plasma insulin
C
The production of lactate from glucose or glycogen is dependent upon the
presence of oxygen
D
Muscle glycogen is the main source of blood glucose
E
The fasting blood glucose concentration in pregnancy is greater than in the nonpregnant state
149. Chylomicrons
A
Are the lightest of the lipoproteins
B
Are not present in fasting plasma in a normal individual
C
Are rich in triacylglycerol
D
Are metabolized in the liver
E
Impart milkiness to the plasma if present in large numbers
150. Regarding glucose
A
Main organ of glucogenolysis in the muscles
B
Is not found in plants
C
The hexokinase is important for gluconeogenesis
D
Fructose-1,6-PIP is only found in the liver
E
Insulin inhibits lipolysis of adipose tissue
- 22 -