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Medical-surgical Nursing Quiz (Cardiac)
1. The factors associated with a high likelihood of success with PTCA are all, EXCEPT:
A. Age less than 65 years
B. Single-vessel disease
C. Absence of calcification
D. All of the above
2. The serum creatine kinase (CK) rises in a patient with myocardial infarction with in the
first:
A. 4-6 hours
B. 2-4 days
C. 12-18 hours
D. 3-6 days
3. A type of AV block characterised by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until the
P wave fails to conduct is:
A. Second degree AV-Block : Mobiz Type II
B. Second degree AV block: Mobiz Type I
C. First degree AV block
D. Third degree block
4. Rhythms require permanent pacing in patients with cardiac disorders include:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Second-degree Av block : Mobiz Type I
C. Complete heart block
D. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome
5. The American Heart Association recommended energy dose for defibrillation in
ventricular fibrillation using a biphasic defibrillator is;

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A. 200 J
B. 400 J
C. 150 J
D. 100 J
6. Multifocal atrial tachycardia are more frequently seen in patients with:
A. Cardiac myopathy
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Diabetic mellitus
D. Chronic kidney disease
7. A form of ventricular tachycardia usually occurs in the setting of QT prolongation is:
A. Monomorphic VT
B. Torsade de points
C. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome
D. Sick sinus syndrome
8). A condition characterised by a prolonged PR interval more than 0.2 secs in ECG is
called:
A. Second degree AV block
B. Mobiz Type II AV block
C. First degree Av block
D. Complete block
11). Which procedure regarding the treatment of varicose veins with slerotherapy is
correct:
A. The procedure involves tying off the veins to prevent slugginess of blood from occluding
B. The procedure involves tying off the veins so that circulation is redirected to another
area

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C. The procedure involves surgically removing the varicosity
D. The procedure involves injecting an agent in to the vein to damage the vein wall and
close it off.
9). The type of ulcer which is deep, pale and surrounded by a tissue which is cool to touch
is :
A. Venous stasis ulcer
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Stage 1 ulcer
D. Vascular ulcer
10). Standard management for a patient with deep vein thrombosis includes:
A. Maintain affected limb in the dependent position
B. Apply cool packs to the affected leg for 20 minutes every 4 hours
C. Administer narcotic analgesic every 4 hours around the clock
D. Maintain bed rest
12). Which of tthe following listed assessment finding is typical of cardiac tamponade?
A. A pulse rate of 60 per minute
B. Flat neck veins
C. Muffed or distant heart sounds
D. A pulse pressure of 18/82 mmHg
13). A patient who is sheduled to begin treatment with acetazolamide for the management
of glucoma should be evaluated for allergy to :
A. Glucocorticosteroids
B. NSAIDs
C. Penicillin
D. Sulfa drugs
14) In a patient on mechanical prosthetic heart valve, the recoomended international

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normalized ratio for anticoagulant therapy with warfarin sodium is :
A. 2
B. 2.3
C. 3
D. 5
15). Intraaortic baloon pump therapy is most often used in the management of:
A. Congestive cardiac failure
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Aortic insufficiency
16. Fibrous cords called ______________ connect the free valve margins and ventricular
surfaces of the valve cusps to papillary muscles and ventricular walls.
A. chordae tendineae
B. lunulae
C. bundle of His
D. Kent bundles
17. Intraaortic baloon pump theerapy is used for treatment of:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Pulmonary dema
D. Aortic insufficiency
18. Cardiac troponin T or cardiac troponin I is a protein marker in the detection of:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Congestive cardiac failure

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C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
19. Which of the following assessment finding would elicit specific information regarding
the left ventricular function of a patient with left ventricular failure?
A. Assessing peripheral and sacral edema.
B. Assessing jugular vein distention.
C. Monitoring for organomegaly.
D. Listening to lung sounds.
20. Which of the following ECG findings indicate the presence of hypokalemia?
A. Tall, peak T wave
B. ST segment depression
C. Widening of QRS complex
D. Prolonged PR interval
21. _________________ are slightly raised, yellowish plaques of cholesterol in the skin that
appear along the nasal side of one or both eyelids
A. Corneal arcus
B. Roth's spots
C. Xanthelasmas
D. Cotton wool patches
22. ____________ is the reduction in strength of the arterial pulse that can be felt during
abnormal inspiratory decline of left ventricular filling.
A. Pulsus bisferiens
B. Pulsus alternans
C. Bigeminal pulses
D. Pulsus paradoxus
23. _________ should be performed before radial arterial cannulation to evaluate radial

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and ulnar arterial patency.
A. Valsalva maneuver
B. Allen test
C. Angiography
D. Capillary refilling test
24. _______________ is a paradoxical elevation of jugular venous pressure during
inspiration and may occur in patients with chronic constrictive pericarditis, heart failure,
or tricuspid stenosis.
A. Kussmaul's sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Kernig's sign
D. Brudzinski's sign
25. When measuring blood pressure,diastolic blood pressure is equated with disappearance
of:
A. Premature ectopic beats
B. Muffling of sounds
C. Auscultatory gap
D. Korotkoff sounds
26. Which assessment finding is a more specific information regarding left ventricular
function in a patient with left ventricular failure?
A. Listening to heart sounds
B. assessment of peripheral and sacral edema
C. Assessment of jugular and vein distention
D. Monitoring for organomegaly
27. Which one of the assessment findings in a patient who has been taking spirinolactone
for hypertension is sugestive of side effect of the medication?

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A. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
B. a potassium level of 5.8mEq/L
C. Constipation
D. Dry skin
28. The normal left atraial pressure is:
A. 8 mmHg
B. 15 mmHg
C. 25 mmhg
D. 32 mmHg
29. Normal fibrinogen level in a female client is:
A. 180 to 340 mg/dL
B. 190 to 420 mg/dL
C. 420 to 500 mg/mL
D. 500 to 560 mg/dL
30. Which of the following listed finding more specifically indicate the presence of
myocardial infarction:
A. increased creatinine kinase MB
B. Increased creatinine kinase MM
C. Increased blood urea nitrogen
D. Decreased white blood cell count
31. Bruce protocol is related to:
A. CABG
B. Echocardiaogram
C. Angiogram
D. Exercise ECG test

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32. Cardiac Toponin level helps in the diagnosis of
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
33. A patient has developed atrial fibrillation and his ventricular rate is 150 beats per
minute. What should the patient be asssessed for next?
A. Flat neck veins
B. Complaints of nausea
C. Complaints of headache
D. Hypotension
34. Which of the following assessment would elicit specific information regarding left
ventricular function of a patient with CHF?
A. Listening to lung sounds
B. Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema
C. Assessing for jugular venous distention
D. Monitoring for organomegaly
35. A patient is treated with spirinolactone for hypertension. Which of the following
indicates the patient is experiencing side effect of the drug?
A. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
B. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
C. A sodium level of 140.2 mEq/L
D. A calcium level of 12 mg/dL
36. Which of the following finding would indicate the presence of myocardial infarction?
A. Increased creatinine kinase MB

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B. Increased creatinine kinase MM
C. Increased blood urea nitrogen level
D. Decreased WBC level
37. Which of the following beverages can be included in the menu of a patient with
myocardial infarction?
A. Coffee
B. Tea
C. Cola
D. Lemonade
38. A patient is undergoing cardiac catheterization. Which of the following sensations
reported by the patient during the procedure has the highest priority?
A. Pressure at the insertion site
B. Urge to cough
C. Warm, flushed feeling
D. Chest pain
39. A patient recovering from cardiac surgery has a pleural effusion on the left side and is
having thoracentesis. The patient should be placed in which position for the procedure?
A. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on the over-the-bed table
B. Right-side lying with legs curled up into a fetal position
C. Left-lateral with the right arm supported by a pillow.
D. Dorsal decumbant
40. Which of the following statements about Prinzmetal's (variant) angina is correct?
A. Managed most effectively with beta-blocking drugs
B. Drug of choice in variant angina is nitrates.
C. Generally treated with calcium channel blockers
D. Improves with low-sodium, high potassium diet

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41. Electrocariaogram strip of a patient shows:
P wave and QRS complexes -regular
PR-Interval - 0.14 seconds
QRS complexes measure- 0.08 seconds
overall hert beat rate- 82beats per minutes.
The cardiac rhythm is
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Sinus tachycardia
C. Normal sinus rhythm
D. First-degree heart block
42. EEG rhythm strip of a patient shows
Atrial and ventricular rate- 70 beats per minute
PR-Interval - 0.14 seconds
QRS complexes - 0.08 seconds
P-P interval - slightly irregular
What is the rhythm?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Normal sinus rhythm
C. Sinus tachycardia
D. Sinus arrythmia
43. A patient with myocardial infarction experiencing new multiform, premature
contractions. The patient is allergic to lidocaine hydrochloride.
What is the next drug of choice for immediate use?
A. Digoxin

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B. Metoprolol
C. Verapramil
D. Procainamide
44. Which of the following indicates that antidysrhythmic therapy for a patient with
premature ventricular contractions (PVC) is effective?
If the PVCs continued to:
A. be multifocal in appearance.
B. occure in pairs.
C. decrease in frequency to less than 6 per minute.
D. fall on the second half of the T wave.
45. A patient with complete heart block has had a permanant demand pace maker
inserted. The pacemaker function is considered to be proper, if ECG rhythm strip shows
presence of pacemaker spikes
A. Just after each T wave
B. Before each QRS complex
C. Just after each P wave
D. Before each P wave

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46. Which of the following intervention is contraindicated in a patient with deep
vein thrombosis of the right leg?
A. Elevation of the limb
B. Ambulation in the hall every 4 hours
C. Application of moist heat to the right leg
D. Administration of analgesics
47. The cercumflex artery is a branch of
A. Right coronory artery
B. Anterior descending artery
C. Left coronory artery
D. Descending aorta
48. Apical pulse is is taken by placing the diaphragm of the stethescope at the area
of
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Pulmonic valve
D. Mitral area
49. Which of the following statements about coronory arteries is wrong?
A. Right coronory artery supplies the right side of the heart.
B. Left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle
C. Circumflex artery supplies the left atrium and lateral wall of the left ventricle.
D. Right coronory artery supplies the left ventricle.
50. A female patient who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why she
should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The informs
the that this would trigger

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A. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac
contractility.
B. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing and increase in heart rate and cardiac
contractility.
C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac
contractility.
D. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac
contractility.
51. Which of the following intervention is NOT indicated in a patient with stable
ventricular tachycardia?
A. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
B. Administer oxygen
C. Obtain an ECG
D. Contact physician
E. Difibrillate the patient
52. Which of the following manifestations differentiates pericarditis from other
cardiopulmonary problems?
A. Chest pain that worsens on expiration
B. Pericardial friction rub
C. Anterior chest pain
D. Weakness and irritability
53. Premature ventricular contractions are charecterised by
A. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause
B. QRS complexes, which are short and narrow
C. Inverted P waves before the QRS complexes
D. A P-wave preceding every QRS complexes
54. Which of the following is NOT associated with cardiac tamponade?

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A. Pulses paradoxus
B. Distant heart sounds
C. Distended jugular veins
D. Bradycardia
55. Digitalis functions to improve congestive heart failure by
A. Induction of emesis
B. Activation of -adrenergic receptors
C. Improving survival in patients of heart failure
D. Binding to and inhibiting the Na–K ATPase enzyme in cardiac myocytes
E. Deactivation of the angiotensin receptor
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A.
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. D 12. C. 13.D 14.C 15. B
16. A 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. D 23. B 24. A 25.D
26. A 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B
36. A 37. D 38. D 39. A 40.C
41.C 42. D 43. D 44. C 45.C
46. B 47. C 48. d 49. D 50. A
51. E 52. B 53. A 54. D 55.D