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CHAPTER-5
1) Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
Select one:
a. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
b. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
c. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
2) If (condition 1) then
do B
End if
If (condition 2) then
do C
Else
Do A
Endif
How many test cases are required for 100% statement coverage?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
3) Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input
conditions?
Select one:
a. Equivalence class partitioning
b. Decision table
c. Boundary value analysis
d. Use case based testing
4) Which of the following are valid testing principles:
I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.
II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.
III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.
IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.
V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product
Select one:
a. I, IV, V
b. I, V
c. I, III
d. II, IV
5) ATM Operations made like:
a)Enter valid pin number
b.) the ATM accepted the pin
c.) User asked to enter the pin.
d) the ATM dispatches the amount,
The above interaction between the user and system comes under?
Select one:
a. decision table
b. State transition diagram
c. ECP
d. BVA
6) If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set
of test cases will no longer find any new bugs. What is this principle called ?
Select one:
a. Pesticide paradox
b. defect clustering
c. Exhaustive testing
d. Early testing
7) If x > 200 then
Z = x+y
endif
If x < 200 && y = 150 then
X++
endif
How many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage ?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
8) Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the
availability of resources.
b. Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project.
c. Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning
should not take into account constraints from the development team.
d. Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start
before the entire project plan of the development team is available.
9) A tool that supports Analyzing and removing the cause of failure is called ?
Select one:
a. A configuration management tool
b. A test management tool
c. A dynamic analysis tool
d. A debugging tool
e. A test execution tool
10) Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the
following test objectives might be proper with the tester mindset?
Select one:
a. Prevent defects through early involvement.
b. Show that the system works before we ship it.
c. Find as many defects as possible
d. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
11) Good candidate of automation?
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Conformation testing
c. Decision testing
d. Regression testing
12) Find the mismatch?
Select one:
a. Requirement management tools - Enables individual tests to be traceable
b. Test design tools - Generate test inputs
c. Test data preparation tools - Manipulate Data bases
d. Configuration management tools - Check for consistence
13) Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the risk analysis used in testing,
I) The risk level depends on the probability of occurrence of an undesired event
II) The risk level is determined by the probability of occurrence of an undesired event and by
its Impact
III) Project risks are those that characterize the project ability to achieve its objectives
IV) Product risks are areas of potential failures (i.e. future undesired events ) in the software
or system
Select one:
a. I, II
b. III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, III
14) A test case contains?
Select one:
a. Comments
b. Expected result
c. documentation
d. Bug information
15) What are the advantages of automation testing ?
Select one:
a. makes life easy
b. Easy to use
c. None of the above
d. Reduces the repetitive tasks
16) What are the advantages of automation testing ?
Select one:
a. makes life easy
b. Easy to use
c. None of the above
d. Reduces the repetitive tasks Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
Select one:
a. They are used by developers only
b. They are useful only for regulated industries
c. They require compilation of code
d. They help you find defects rather than failures
17) Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem,
An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15?
Select one:
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
18) Which testing technique is the most suitable for testing the functionality of a fully
computerized elevator?
Select one:
a. State transition testing
b. Use case testing
c. Man machine interface testing
d. Decision table testing
19) Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a. Unit tests
ii. System Requirements b. Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c. System tests
iv. Business requirements d. Integration tests
Select one:
a. i-d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
b. i-d , ii-b , iii-a , iv-c
c. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
d. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
20) Which of the following is a better incident report?
Select one:
a. Until release V5.22 the displayed value was always correct. Since release V5.23 it is
always wrong (see incident report 958). And it is getting worse and worse. This time the
displayed value is half of the correct one. The value I want to see is “100.74” (see
requirements document)
b. The displayed result is “50,37” But the expected result, according to the
requirements document. V2.5, chapter 5.1, should be “100.74” in other words twice the
displayed value. The displayed value is wrong for the last few releases but not in the
same way as it is now
c. The displayed result in the “cost” field is wrong.It displays “50,37” instead of “100.74”
(requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1) Note that it was already wrong in release V5.23,
although there it was worse (see incident report 958).
d. How is that possible that you display “50,37”? If you had a look at the requirements
document, V2.5, chapter 5.1, you could see that you should display “100.74”. By the way, it
was already wrong in release V5.23, (see incident report 958).
21) Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829 standards is correct?
Select one:
a. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation.
b. IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design specifications.
c. IEEE standard 829 doesnot cover test case design. It only relates to test planning.
d. IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing projects.
22) A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the
implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
Select one:
a. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
b. Modify the projects organizational structure to meet the managers management style
c. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
d. Establish a relationship with the customer
23) Developers preferred in terms of bug?
Select one:
a. Is not a bug
b. Cannot reproduce
c. Produced
d. Able to be Reproduced
24) Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing.
b. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box
testing has been finished.
c. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to
the system under test.
d. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.
25) While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of
impact on the system assigned to the defect?
Select one:
Select one:
a. Urgency
b. Priority
c. Severity
d. Difficulty
26) Which of the following statements is an example of testing Contributing to higher quality?
Select one:
a. A tester installs a test item in the test environment
b. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release.
c. A test leader writes a test summary report
d. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
27) Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
Select one:
a. iv, ii is correct
b. i,ii,iii,iv is correct
c. iii,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
d. i,ii,iii and iv are incorrect
28) For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running with a test
automation tool?
Select one:
a. the total cost of the test project always decreases
b. test coverage is increased.
c. the number of round bugs is reduced.
d. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.
29) Test script A depends on test script B and test script C blocks the execution of the test script
A. what is the flow of correct execution ?
Select one:
a. A and B then C
b. A and B and C
c. B and C then A
d. B or C then A
30) Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance
personnel in looking for defects prior to dynamic testing?
Select one:
a. test data preparation tool
b. configuration management tool
c. static analysis tool
d. modeling tool
31) What is basic idea of structure-based testing techniques?
Select one:
a. To do better testing, since the specifications are not needed.
b. To allow developers to have their own testing technique
c. To gain time, since structure-based techniques are easier to implement than specification-
based techniques.
d. The more details of the source code are executed, the more faults can be found.
32) In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to ?
Select one:
a. find as many faults as possible.
b. test high risk areas.
c. obtain good test coverage.
d. test whatever is easiest to test.
33) A test harness is a?
Select one:
a. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the
organization regarding testing
b. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
c. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
d. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
34) Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?
Select one:
A. Simulators and stubs may be required
B. It mainly tests interfaces and interactions between components
C. It identifies defects in the functionality of modules, objects and classes.
D. It may be applied using a test-first approach
35) Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations, 1. Severe time pressure,
2. Inadequate specification?
Select one:
a. Exploratory testing
b. Statement testing
c. Error guessing
d. Decision testing
36) Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage, It can be applied to
human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing?
Select one:
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Decision Table testing
c. Error Guessing
d. Equivalence partitioning
37) The following program part is given:
IF(condition A)
Then DO B
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?
Select one:
a. 2
b. A very high number
c. 4
d. 1
38) What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?
Select one:
a. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
b. Preventative tests are designed earl; reactive tests are designed after the software has
been produced.
c. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
d. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced (reactive tests are
designed early in response to review comments.)
39) Maintenance testing is?
Select one:
a. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
b. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
c. Synonym of testing the quality of service
d. Testing management
40) Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?
Select one:
a. Decision table testing, Use case testing, Control flow testing
b. Exploratory testing, State transition testing, Control flow testing
c. Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing
d. Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing
© TalentSprint 2011

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Topic 5 chapter 5

  • 1. CHAPTER-5 1) Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. Select one: a. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false b. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false c. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false d. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false 2) If (condition 1) then do B End if If (condition 2) then do C Else Do A Endif How many test cases are required for 100% statement coverage? Select one: a. 5 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4
  • 2. 3) Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions? Select one: a. Equivalence class partitioning b. Decision table c. Boundary value analysis d. Use case based testing 4) Which of the following are valid testing principles: I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible. II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused. III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct. IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct. V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product Select one: a. I, IV, V b. I, V c. I, III d. II, IV 5) ATM Operations made like: a)Enter valid pin number b.) the ATM accepted the pin c.) User asked to enter the pin. d) the ATM dispatches the amount, The above interaction between the user and system comes under? Select one: a. decision table b. State transition diagram c. ECP
  • 3. d. BVA 6) If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs. What is this principle called ? Select one: a. Pesticide paradox b. defect clustering c. Exhaustive testing d. Early testing 7) If x > 200 then Z = x+y endif If x < 200 && y = 150 then X++ endif How many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage ? Select one: a. 5 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3 8) Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources. b. Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project. c. Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning should not take into account constraints from the development team.
  • 4. d. Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start before the entire project plan of the development team is available. 9) A tool that supports Analyzing and removing the cause of failure is called ? Select one: a. A configuration management tool b. A test management tool c. A dynamic analysis tool d. A debugging tool e. A test execution tool 10) Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might be proper with the tester mindset? Select one: a. Prevent defects through early involvement. b. Show that the system works before we ship it. c. Find as many defects as possible d. Reduce the overall level of product risk. 11) Good candidate of automation? Select one: a. None of the above b. Conformation testing c. Decision testing d. Regression testing 12) Find the mismatch? Select one: a. Requirement management tools - Enables individual tests to be traceable b. Test design tools - Generate test inputs c. Test data preparation tools - Manipulate Data bases d. Configuration management tools - Check for consistence
  • 5. 13) Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the risk analysis used in testing, I) The risk level depends on the probability of occurrence of an undesired event II) The risk level is determined by the probability of occurrence of an undesired event and by its Impact III) Project risks are those that characterize the project ability to achieve its objectives IV) Product risks are areas of potential failures (i.e. future undesired events ) in the software or system Select one: a. I, II b. III, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III 14) A test case contains? Select one: a. Comments b. Expected result c. documentation d. Bug information 15) What are the advantages of automation testing ? Select one: a. makes life easy b. Easy to use c. None of the above d. Reduces the repetitive tasks 16) What are the advantages of automation testing ? Select one: a. makes life easy b. Easy to use
  • 6. c. None of the above d. Reduces the repetitive tasks Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools? Select one: a. They are used by developers only b. They are useful only for regulated industries c. They require compilation of code d. They help you find defects rather than failures 17) Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem, An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15? Select one: a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15 b. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15 d. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15 18) Which testing technique is the most suitable for testing the functionality of a fully computerized elevator? Select one: a. State transition testing b. Use case testing c. Man machine interface testing d. Decision table testing 19) Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a. Unit tests ii. System Requirements b. Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c. System tests iv. Business requirements d. Integration tests Select one: a. i-d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
  • 7. b. i-d , ii-b , iii-a , iv-c c. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b d. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c 20) Which of the following is a better incident report? Select one: a. Until release V5.22 the displayed value was always correct. Since release V5.23 it is always wrong (see incident report 958). And it is getting worse and worse. This time the displayed value is half of the correct one. The value I want to see is “100.74” (see requirements document) b. The displayed result is “50,37” But the expected result, according to the requirements document. V2.5, chapter 5.1, should be “100.74” in other words twice the displayed value. The displayed value is wrong for the last few releases but not in the same way as it is now c. The displayed result in the “cost” field is wrong.It displays “50,37” instead of “100.74” (requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1) Note that it was already wrong in release V5.23, although there it was worse (see incident report 958). d. How is that possible that you display “50,37”? If you had a look at the requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1, you could see that you should display “100.74”. By the way, it was already wrong in release V5.23, (see incident report 958). 21) Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829 standards is correct? Select one: a. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation. b. IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design specifications. c. IEEE standard 829 doesnot cover test case design. It only relates to test planning. d. IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing projects. 22) A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to Select one: a. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan b. Modify the projects organizational structure to meet the managers management style c. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace d. Establish a relationship with the customer
  • 8. 23) Developers preferred in terms of bug? Select one: a. Is not a bug b. Cannot reproduce c. Produced d. Able to be Reproduced 24) Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing. b. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished. c. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test. d. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only. 25) While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of impact on the system assigned to the defect? Select one: Select one: a. Urgency b. Priority c. Severity d. Difficulty 26) Which of the following statements is an example of testing Contributing to higher quality? Select one: a. A tester installs a test item in the test environment b. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release. c. A test leader writes a test summary report
  • 9. d. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort 27) Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures Select one: a. iv, ii is correct b. i,ii,iii,iv is correct c. iii,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. d. i,ii,iii and iv are incorrect 28) For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running with a test automation tool? Select one: a. the total cost of the test project always decreases b. test coverage is increased. c. the number of round bugs is reduced. d. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced. 29) Test script A depends on test script B and test script C blocks the execution of the test script A. what is the flow of correct execution ? Select one: a. A and B then C b. A and B and C c. B and C then A d. B or C then A 30) Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance personnel in looking for defects prior to dynamic testing? Select one:
  • 10. a. test data preparation tool b. configuration management tool c. static analysis tool d. modeling tool 31) What is basic idea of structure-based testing techniques? Select one: a. To do better testing, since the specifications are not needed. b. To allow developers to have their own testing technique c. To gain time, since structure-based techniques are easier to implement than specification- based techniques. d. The more details of the source code are executed, the more faults can be found. 32) In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to ? Select one: a. find as many faults as possible. b. test high risk areas. c. obtain good test coverage. d. test whatever is easiest to test. 33) A test harness is a? Select one: a. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing b. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project c. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test d. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test 34) Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing? Select one: A. Simulators and stubs may be required B. It mainly tests interfaces and interactions between components
  • 11. C. It identifies defects in the functionality of modules, objects and classes. D. It may be applied using a test-first approach 35) Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations, 1. Severe time pressure, 2. Inadequate specification? Select one: a. Exploratory testing b. Statement testing c. Error guessing d. Decision testing 36) Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage, It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing? Select one: a. Boundary Value Analysis b. Decision Table testing c. Error Guessing d. Equivalence partitioning 37) The following program part is given: IF(condition A) Then DO B END IF How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage? Select one: a. 2 b. A very high number c. 4 d. 1 38) What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing? Select one:
  • 12. a. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic. b. Preventative tests are designed earl; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced. c. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible. d. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced (reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.) 39) Maintenance testing is? Select one: a. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software b. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor c. Synonym of testing the quality of service d. Testing management 40) Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques? Select one: a. Decision table testing, Use case testing, Control flow testing b. Exploratory testing, State transition testing, Control flow testing c. Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing d. Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing © TalentSprint 2011